
Search Results
Parent Involvement in Adolescent Obesity Treatment (TEENS+)
Sarah M Farthing, MS - sarah.malone@vcuhealth.org
• BMI ≥ 85th percentile for age and gender according to the CDC Growth Charts
• Age 12 to 16
• Must reside with the primary participating parent Parent
• ≥18
• BMI ≥ 25 kg/m2
• Must reside with the adolescent
• Non-English speaking
• Medical condition(s) that may be associated with unintentional weight change
• Diabetes mellitus
• Use of oral glucocorticoids, atypical antipsychotics, weight loss medications, or an investigational medication within 3 months of study participation
• Use of a GLP-1 within 6 months of study participation
• Use of Depo-Provera within 6 months of study participation
• Medical condition(s) that may be negatively impacted by exercise
• Psychiatric, cognitive, physical or developmental conditions that would impair the ability to complete assessments, participate in a group, or conduct physical activity
• Reports of compensatory behaviors in the past 3 months
• Current pregnancy or plan to become pregnant during study period
• Previous participation in HM20010365, HM20003076, HM20005235 or HM20014304
• Current participation in another weight loss program
• Personal history of weight loss surgery
• Severe depression
• Clinically significant eating disorder
• Change in dose of metformin, tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin uptake inhibitors, or stimulant medications within 3 months of study participation
• Admission to a psychiatric hospital within the past year Parent
• Non-English speaking
• Medical condition(s) that may be associated with unintentional weight change
• Use of oral glucocorticoids, atypical antipsychotics, weight loss medications, or an investigational medication within 3 months of study participation
• Use of a GLP-1 within 6 months of study participation with no T2D diagnosis; if T2D diagnosis, change in dose GLP-1 within 3 months of study participation
• Use of Depo-Provera within 6 months of study participation
• Psychiatric, cognitive, physical or developmental conditions that would impair the ability to complete assessments, participate in a group, or conduct physical activity
• Reports of compensatory behaviors in the past 3 months
• Current pregnancy, lactation, less than 6 months post-partum, or plan to become pregnant during study period
• Previous participation in HM20010365, HM20003076, HM20005235 or HM20014304
• Current participation in another weight loss program
• Personal history of weight loss surgery
• Severe depression
• Clinically significant eating disorder
• Change in dose of diabetes medications, tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin uptake inhibitors, or stimulant medications within 3 months of study participation
• Admission to a psychiatric hospital within the past year
Treosulfan-Based Conditioning Regimen Before a Blood or Bone Marrow Transplant for the Treatment of Bone Marrow Failure Diseases (BMT CTN 1904)
Megan Scott - bmtctn1904@emmes.com
• Patient must be >= 1.0 year of age and less than 50.0 years of age at the time of enrollment (i.e. patient must have celebrated their 1st birthday when enrolled and must NOT have celebrated their 50th birthday when enrolled; 49.99 years)
• Underlying BMFD treatable by allogenic HCT
• Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
• Criteria for Diagnosis:
• A pathogenic mutation(s) for Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
• For those patients tested but lacking a genetic mutation they must meet both **** criteria below:
• Exocrine pancreatic dysfunction as defined by at least one of the following:
• Pancreatic isoamylase below normal (age >= 3 years old), OR
• Fecal elastase < 200, AND
• Bone marrow failure as evidence by at least one of the following:
• Intermittent or persistent neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count < 1,500/uL), OR
• Hypo-productive anemia with a hemoglobin concentration below the age-related adjusted norms, OR
• Unexplained macrocytosis, OR
• Platelet count < 150,000/uL without alternative etiology, OR
• Hypocellular bone marrow
• Indications for HCT:
• Severe neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count [ANC] < 500/uL), OR
• Severe anemia (hemoglobin < 8 g/dL) or transfusion-dependent anemia, OR
• Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 20,000/uL) or transfusion-dependent thrombocytopenia, OR
• Additional clinical or laboratory data may be considered for protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 eligibility review committee (ERC). In addition, patients with severe or recurrent infections will be reviewed by the ERC if they do not meet the indications for transplant listed above
• Diamond Blackfan Anemia
• Criteria for Diagnosis:
• A pathogenic mutation for Diamond Blackfan anemia
• For those patients tested but lacking a genetic mutation the patient must meet the first *** criteria and at least one of the subsequent *** criteria listed below:
• History of deficiency of erythroid precursors in an otherwise cellular bone marrow AND,
• Reticulocytopenia, OR
• Elevated adenosine deaminase activity, OR
• Elevated hemoglobin F, OR
• Macrocytosis, OR
• Congenital anomalies
• Indications for HCT:
• Red blood cell (RBC) transfusion dependent anemia despite an adequate trial of steroids; OR
• Additional clinical or laboratory data may be considered for protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 ERC
• Congenital Sideroblastic anemia
• Criteria for Diagnosis:
• A pathogenic mutation(s) for sideroblastic anemia
• For those patients tested but lacking a genetic mutation:
• Presence of ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow excluding acquired causes of ringed sideroblasts such as lead poisoning & zinc toxicity
• Indications for HCT:
• Severe anemia (hemoglobin < 8 g/dL) or transfusion-dependent anemia OR
• Additional clinical or laboratory data may be considered for protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 ERC
• GATA2 mutation with associated marrow failure
• Criteria for Diagnosis: ** A pathogenic mutation(s) for GATA2
• Indications for HCT:
• Severe neutropenia (ANC < 500/uL), OR
• Severe anemia (hemoglobin < 8 g/dL) or transfusion-dependent anemia, OR
• Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 20,000/uL) or transfusion-dependent thrombocytopenia, OR
• Additional clinical or laboratory data may be considered for protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 ERC. In addition, patients with severe or recurrent infections will be reviewed by the ERC if they do not meet indications for transplant listed above
• SAMD9 or SAMD9L disorders
• Criteria for Diagnosis: ** A pathogenic mutation(s) for SAMD9 or SAMD9L
• Indications for HCT:
• Severe neutropenia (ANC < 500/uL), OR
• Severe anemia (hemoglobin < 8 g/dL) or transfusion-dependent anemia, OR
• Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 20,000/uL) or transfusion-dependent thrombocytopenia, OR
• Additional clinical or laboratory data may be considered for protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 ERC
• Congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
• Criteria for Diagnosis:
• A pathogenic mutation(s) for congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia.
• For those patients tested but lacking a genetic mutation the patient must meet criteria below:
• Thrombocytopenia early in life, AND
• History of bone marrow demonstrating megakaryocyte hypoplasia
• Indications for HCT:
• Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 20,000/uL) or transfusion-dependent thrombocytopenia, OR
• Neutropenia defined as an ANC < 500/uL, OR
• Severe anemia (hemoglobin < 8 g/dL) or transfusion-dependent anemia, OR
• Additional clinical or laboratory data may be considered for protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 ERC
• Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
• Criteria for Diagnosis:
• Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) clone size in granulocytes >= 10%, AND
• Complement mediated intravascular hemolysis with an elevated LDH (above institutional upper limits of normal)
• Indications for HCT:
• PNH with thrombosis despite adequate medical management, OR
• PNH with intravascular hemolysis requiring transfusion support despite adequate medical management, OR
• Additional clinical or laboratory data may be considered for protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 ERC. In addition, patients with PNH and cytopenias may be considered for the protocol eligibility following review by protocol 1904 ERC
• An undefined BMFD: a patient with a BMFD for whom a genetic mutation responsible for their bone marrow failure phenotype has not been identified (excluding PNH) will be eligible for this clinical trial following approval by Blood and Marrow Transplant Clinical Trials Network (BMT CTN) 1904 ERC * A BMFD with a known genetic mutation but not listed above will be eligible for this clinical trial following approval by BMT CTN 1904 ERC
• Patient and/or legal guardian must sign informed consent prior to initiation of conditioning for BMT CTN 1904
• Females and males of childbearing potential must agree to practice 2 effective methods of contraception at the same time or agree to abstinence
• Note: The following patients MUST be reviewed by the BMT CTN 1904 ERC in order to determine if they are eligible for this trial:
• All patients with Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, Diamond Blackfan anemia, congenital sideroblastic anemia, and congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia who have had genetic testing and lack a genetic mutation
• All patients with an undefined BMFD: a patient with a BMFD for whom a genetic mutation responsible for their bone marrow failure phenotype has not been identified, excluding PNH
• All patients with a BMFD and a known genetic mutation that is not listed above
• All patients with GATA2 mutation and associated marrow failure
• All patients with SAMD9 or SAMD9L disorders
• There may be circumstances where a treating physician will consider a transplant for a patient with a BMFD who does not meet all the criteria listed under "indications for HCT". In these situations, treating physicians may submit their patient to the BMT CTN 1904 ERC for review in order to determine if the patient is eligible for this clinical trial based on additional clinical or laboratory information
• Many patients with BMFD can have bone marrow evaluations that raise concern for possible myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) including but not limited to dysplastic bone marrow evaluations or cytogenetic abnormalities. However, in patients BMFD these findings are not necessarily diagnostic or consistent with MDS. Therefore, given the complexities of diagnosing MDS in patients with BMFD, all patients with bone marrow evaluations concerning for possible MDS should be submitted to the ERC for review to confirm or exclude MDS. This is particularly important as we do not want to exclude potentially eligible patients due to an incorrect diagnosis of MDS
• HLA-MATCHED RELATED DONOR: HLA-matched sibling: Must be a minimum HLA-6/6 matched to the recipient at HLA-A, -B (serologic typing) and DRB1 (high-resolution typing)
• HLA-MATCHED RELATED DONOR: HLA-matched related (phenotypic match): Fully matched for HLA-A, -B, -C, -DRB1, and DQB1 by high-resolution typing.
• HLA-MATCHED RELATED DONOR: If a genetic mutation is known for the patient, the HLA-matched related donor [either HLA-matched sibling or HLA-matched related (phenotypic match)] must be screened for the same genetic mutation if clinically appropriate and should be confirmed to not have the same genetic disease (this does not include patients with PNH). Consult the protocol team with questions
• HLA-MATCHED RELATED DONOR: If a patient has an undefined BMFD (a patient with a BMFD for whom a genetic mutation responsible for their bone marrow failure phenotype has not been identified), the HLA-matched related donor [either HLA-matched sibling or HLA-matched related (phenotypic match)] must have an evaluation as directed by the treating physician to confirm that the donor does not have the same underlying disease. This will include a complete blood count (CBC) with differential and potentially a bone marrow evaluation or other studies as directed by the treating physician
• UNRELATED DONOR: Fully matched for HLA-A, -B, -C, -DRB1, and DQB1 by high-resolution typing
• UNRELATED DONOR: Mismatched for a single HLA-class 1 allele (HLA-A, -B, or -C) by high-resolution typing; OR
• UNRELATED DONOR: Mismatched for a single HLA DQB1 allele or antigen by high-resolution typing * Note: donor patient (DP) matching per institutional practice
• DONOR SELECTION RECCOMENDATIONS: in the case where there are multiple donor options, donors should be selected based on the following priority numbered below:
• Unaffected fully HLA-matched sibling
• Unaffected fully phenotypically HLA-matched related donor
• Fully HLA-matched unrelated donor
• Unrelated donor with single allele or antigen level mismatch at DQB1
• Unrelated donor with single allele level mismatch at class 1 (HLA-A, -B, or -C)
• Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia, Fanconi anemia, dyskeratosis congenita, and congenital neutropenia
• Patients with MDS as defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) or leukemia
• Prior allogeneic HCT
• Patient's weight =< 10.0 kg (actual body weight and adjusted body weight) at time of study enrollment
• Lansky (patients < 16 years of age) or Karnofsky (patients >= 16 years of age) performance < 70%
• Left ventricular ejection fraction < 50% by echocardiogram or multi-gated acquisition (MUGA) scan * For patients unable to obtain a left ventricular ejection fraction, left ventricular shortening fraction of < 26%
• Diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO) (corrected/adjusted for hemoglobin) < 50%, forced expiratory volume (FEV)1 < 50% predicted, and forced vital capacity (FVC) < 50% predicted
• For patients unable to perform pulmonary function tests (PFTs) due to age or developmental delay: oxygen (O2) saturation < 92% on room air
• On supplemental oxygen
• Estimated creatinine clearance < 60 mL/minute/1.73m^2 (estimated per institutional practice)
• Dialysis dependent
• Conjugated bilirubin > 2 x ULN for age (upper limit of normal [ULN], unless attributable to Gilbert's syndrome)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) > 4 x ULN for age, or
• Fulminant liver failure or cirrhosis
• Iron overload - This exclusion criterion only applies to patients who are considered at risk for hepatic or cardiac iron overload. Therefore, not all patients enrolled on this protocol will undergo formal hepatic or cardiac iron assessment
• For patients >= 18 years with a history of significant transfusions defined as >= 8 packed red blood cell transfusions per year for >= 1 year or have received >= 20 packed red blood cell transfusions (lifetime cumulative) will require formal hepatic and cardiac iron measurement. In addition, patients with a prior history of hepatic or cardiac iron overload will also require formal assessment for iron overload. Patients are excluded if:
• Hepatic iron content >= 8 mg Fe/g dry weight by liver magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) using a validated methodology (such as T2 * MRI or ferriscan) or liver biopsy per institutional practice
• Cardiac iron content < 25 msec by cardiac T2 * MRI
• For patients < 18 years old with a history of significant transfusions defined as >= 8 packed red blood cell transfusions per year for >= 1 year or have received >= 20 packed red blood cell transfusions (lifetime cumulative) will require formal hepatic iron measurement. In addition, patients with a prior history of liver iron overload will also require formal assessment for iron overload. Patients are excluded if:
• Hepatic iron content >= 8 mg Fe/g dry weight by liver MRI using a validated methodology (such as T2 * MRI or ferriscan) or liver biopsy per institutional practice
• Uncontrolled bacterial infection within 1 week of study enrollment. Uncontrolled is defined as currently taking medication with no clinical improvement or progression on adequate medical treatment
• Uncontrolled viral or fungal infection within 30 days of study enrollment. Uncontrolled is defined as currently taking medication with no clinical improvement or progression on adequate medical treatment
• Positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
• Presence of clinically significant anti-donor human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-antibodies per institutional practice
• Prior solid organ transplant
• Patients with prior malignancies except resected non-melanoma skin cancer or treated cervical carcinoma in situ
• Demonstrated lack of compliance with prior medical care as determined by referring physician
• Females who are pregnant or breast-feeding
• Known hypersensitivity to treosulfan or fludarabine
• Known life-threatening reaction (i.e. anaphylaxis) to Thymoglobulin that would prohibit use for the patient as this study requires use of the Thymoglobulin preparation of anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG)
A Study to Determine Frequency of DNA-repair Defects in Men With Metastatic Prostate Cancer (PREVALENCE)
Study Contact - Participate-In-This-Study@its.jnj.com
• Diagnosis of metastatic (Stage IV) prostate cancer (PC), confirmed by either biopsy of a metastatic tumor site or history of localized disease supported by metastatic disease on imaging studies (that is [i.e.], clearly noted in hospital/clinical records)
• Signed Informed consent form (ICF)
• No condition for which, in the opinion of the investigator, participation would not be in the best interest of the participant (for example [e.g.], compromise the well-being) or that could prevent, limit, or confound the protocol-specified assessments
• Willing to provide a saliva, blood, and/or archival tumor tissue sample for genomic analysis
• No prior poly (adenosine diphosphate [ADP]-ribose) polymerase inhibitor (PARPi) for the treatment of prostate cancer
• No prior DNA-repair gene defect test results from a Janssen sponsored interventional trial
Effects of Dexrazoxane Hydrochloride on Biomarkers Associated With Cardiomyopathy and Heart Failure After Cancer Treatment
Gwaltney, Lindsey - lbgwaltney@vcu.edu
Safety, Tolerability and Effectiveness of ALVR105 in Kidney Transplant Recipients
Fenner, Shawn - shawn.fenner@vcuhealth.org
• Patients who had a kidney transplant performed greater than or equal to 28 days prior to enrollment
• At least 1 identified, suitably matched Posoleucel (ALVR105) cell line for infusion is available. (If a matching Posoleucel line is not available, the following patient data will be collected: demographic data and human leukocyte antigen [HLA] type.)
• Capable of giving signed informed consent which includes compliance with the requirements and restrictions listed in the informed consent form (ICF) and in the protocol.
• Contraceptive use by men and women should be consistent with local regulations regarding the methods of contraception for those participating in clinical studies.
• A female patient is eligible to participate if she is not pregnant or breastfeeding, and 1 of the following conditions applies:
• She is a woman of non-childbearing potential (WONCBP) as defined in the protocol
• She is a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) and using an acceptable contraceptive method as described in the protocol during the study treatment period and for at least 90 days after the last dose of study treatment. The Investigator should evaluate the potential for contraceptive method failure.
• Undergone allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation
• Evidence or history of graft versus host disease (GVHD) or cytokine release syndrome (CRS).
• Uncontrolled or progressive bacterial or fungal infections
• Known or presumed pneumonia
• Ongoing therapy with high-dose systemic corticosteroids (ie, prednisone dose >0.5 mg/kg/day or equivalent).
• Pregnant or lactating or planning to become pregnant.
• Weight <40 kg.
• Patients who received, or planned to receive abatacept or belatacept, within 3 months of screening
Virtual Walking Intervention for Neuropathic Pain in Spinal Cord Injury (VRWalk)
Hannah Palanchi - hannah.palanchi@vcuhealth.org
• The study will recruit individuals with complete injury (American Spinal Injury Association [ASIA] classification A) with lumbar, paraplegic, or low tetraplegic (C5-C7) injury. Additional criterial will include:
• persistent NP symptoms that are of daily severity of at least 4/10
• endorsement of more than 2 items on a 7-item Spinal Cord Injury Pain Instrument, SCIPI
• age of 18 - 65
• more than one-year post-injury
• Not meeting injury type criteria
• Not meeting NP criteria
• Age 17 or less
• Less than a year following injury
• Inability to comprehend spoken English
• Prisoners
Evaluation of the Efficacy and Safety of Duodenal Mucosal Resurfacing Using the Revita® System in Subjects With Type 2 Diabetes on Insulin Therapy (REVITALIZE 1)
Lynn Wilson - lwilson@fractyl.com
• Male, and non-pregnant, non-lactating females
• Age between 21 and 70 years (both inclusive)
• Subjects with T2D on stable dose (up to maximally approved doses) of metformin and up to 2 ADAs (including either GLP1 or DPP-4i and/or, TZD), requiring a minimum of 20 units up to a maximum of 60 units of basal insulin
• Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) of 7.5-9.5% (both inclusive) confirmed at the end of at least 3 weeks stable run-in period
• FPG ≥180 to <270 mg/dL (measured after overnight 8-hour fasting and 24-36 hours after the last dose of glargine) at the end of at least 3 weeks stable run-in period
• Body Mass Index (BMI) ≥ 24 to ≤ 40 kg/m2
• Women of child-bearing potential (WOCBP) should have negative urine beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) pregnancy test and must agree to use two of the established contraceptive methods throughout the study duration
• Able to sign an informed consent form and comply with study requirements.
• Known case of absolute insulin deficiency as indicated by clinical assessment, and a fasting plasma C-peptide of <0.6 ng/ml
• Any drugs or concomitant medications (such as psychoactive drugs such as carbamazepine, phenobarbital, sympathomimetics (ephedrine etc.), corticosteroids, anabolic steroids, and male sex hormones such as testosterone, etc.) that can interfere with glucose metabolism
• Subjects who either are on SGLT2i, meglitinides, sulphonylurea (SUs), short or rapid acting insulin or any other class of ADA other than permitted baseline ADAs at the time of consent or who have a known or documented SGLT2i and/or metformin intolerance prior to the study
• Recurrent or severe urinary tract or genital mycotic infections or history of GU infection within 4 weeks prior to informed consent
• ALT >3 times upper limit normal values unless if associated with underlying NAFLD
• Use of an investigational drug within 1 month or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) before the screening
• Diagnosed with type 1 diabetes or with a recent history of ketoacidosis
• Ketosis-prone T2D
• History of non-healing diabetic ulcers or amputations
• History of more than 1 severe hypoglycemia episode or unawareness within past 6 months of screening
• In case of two or more glucose alert values of ≤70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) unless a clear correctable precipitating factor can be identified/clinically significant hypoglycemia with self-monitored or laboratory plasma glucose level < 54 mg/dL (3.0 mmol/L / severe hypoglycemic episode requiring third party assistance occurring during run-in period
• Known intestinal autoimmune disease, as evidenced by either a positive anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) test, including Celiac disease, or pre-existing symptoms of lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, or other autoimmune connective tissue disorder, which affects the small intestine
• Secondary hypothyroidism or inadequately controlled primary hypothyroidism (thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) value outside the normal range at screening)
• Known history of thyroid cancer or hyperthyroidism who have undergone treatment within past 12 months or inadequately controlled hyperthyroidism
• An uncontrolled endocrine condition such as multiple endocrine neoplasia etc. (except T2D)
• Known history of a structural or functional disorder of the esophagus, including any swallowing disorder, esophageal chest pain disorders, or drug-refractory esophageal reflux symptoms, active and uncontrolled Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) (grade 3 esophagitis or greater)
• Known history of a structural or functional disorder of the stomach, including gastric ulcer, chronic gastritis, gastric varices, hiatal hernia (a large hiatal hernia or type II and higher paraoesophageal hernia) cancer or any other disorder of the stomach
• Previous GI surgery that could affect the ability to treat the duodenum such as subjects who have had a Billroth 2, Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, gastric sleeve or other similar procedures or conditions
• Known history of chronic pancreatitis or a recent history of acute pancreatitis within the past year
• Presence of acute or chronic active hepatitis B or C (except if hepatitis C is cured) or cirrhosis; or hepatic decompensation/acute liver disease during the last 6 months; or alcoholic or autoimmune chronic hepatitis
• Symptomatic gallstones or symptomatic kidney stones, acute cholecystitis
• Clinically active systemic infection
• Known immunocompromised status, including but not limited to individuals who have undergone organ transplantation, chemotherapy, or radiotherapy within the past 12 months, who have clinically significant leukopenia, who are positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), who are on potential immunosuppressants or whose immune status makes the subject a poor candidate for clinical trial participation in the opinion of the Investigator
• History of active malignancy or partial remission from clinically significant malignancy within the past 5 years (except basal or squamous cell skin cancer or carcinoma in situ or those received curative treatment and in complete remission for 5 years or if subject confirmed as cancer free)
• Known active coagulopathy, or current upper gastro-intestinal bleeding conditions such as ulcers, gastric varices, strictures, or congenital or acquired intestinal telangiectasia
• Subjects with active helicobacter pylori infection (Subjects may be enrolled if they had history of h pylori infection and were successfully treated)
• Known cases of anemia, thalassemia or conditions that affect red blood cell (RBC) turnover such as recent blood transfusion within 90 days
• Use of anticoagulation therapy (such as warfarin, coumadin, novel oral anticoagulants [NOAC]) or anti-platelet agents (such as thienopyridine) which cannot be discontinued for 5-7 days or 2 drug half-lives before the procedure
• Use of systemic glucocorticoids (excluding topical or ophthalmic application or inhaled forms) for more than 10 consecutive days within 90 days prior to the Screening Visit
• Use of drugs known to affect GI motility (e.g., metoclopramide)
• History of moderate to severe chronic kidney disease (CKD), with estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) <45 mL/min/1.73m2 (estimated by Modification of Diet in Renal Disease [MDRD]) or end stage renal failure or on dialysis
• History of myocardial infarction, stroke, or major event requiring hospitalization within the last 3 months prior to screening
• History of new or worsening signs or symptoms of coronary heart disease (CHD) within the last 3 months
• Known case of severe peripheral vascular disease
• Known case of symptomatic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (NYHA Class II-IV) requiring pharmacologic therapy to control symptoms
• Clinically significant electrocardiogram (ECG) findings such as new clinically significant arrythmia or conduction disturbances that increases risk and requires intervention as determined by the investigator
• Subjects who are at risk for pancreatitis particularly those with a recent fasting triglycerides value of > 600 mg/dL value done within past 3 months
• Actively participating in a weight loss program and is currently not in the maintenance phase
• General contraindications to deep or conscious sedation or general anesthesia or high risk as determined by anesthesiologist (e.g., ASA score 4 or higher) or contraindications to upper GI Endoscopy
• History of any illicit alcohol or substance abuse
• Use of weight loss medication such as Meridia, Xenical, or over the counterweight loss medications or other prescribed medications used specifically for purpose of weight loss
• Use of Dietary supplements or herbal preparations that may have unknown effects on glycemic control, risk of bleeding
• Participating in another ongoing clinical trial of an investigational drug or device
• History of non-adherence to treatment in the previous 6 months, as determined by the investigator based on patient history, HbA1c value and/or drug accountability
• Any other mental or physical condition which, in the opinion of the investigator, makes the subject a poor candidate for clinical trial participation
• Unwilling or unable to perform SMBG, complete the subject glycemia diary, or comply with study visits and other study procedures as required per protocol
• Recovered from severe COVID-19 infection (requiring hospitalization) however still have persistent long COVID-19 symptoms (i.e., they have not recovered for several weeks or months since the start of symptoms that were suggestive of COVID-19, irrespective if they are tested or not).
Safety and Efficacy of Tideglusib in Congenital or Childhood Onset Myotonic Dystrophy (REACH CDM X)
Howell, Jodie - jodie.howell@vcuhealth.org
• Subjects under study must be individuals with a diagnosis of Congenital or Childhood Onset DM1.
• Diagnosis must be genetically confirmed
• Subjects must be male or female aged ≥6 years to ≤45 years at Screening
• Subjects must have a Clinical Global Impression - Severity (CGI-S) score of 3 or greater at Screening (V-1)
• Written, voluntary informed consent must be obtained before any study related procedures are conducted. Where a parent or legally authorized representative (LAR) provides consent, there must also be assent from the subject (as required by local regulations)
• Subject's caregiver must be willing and able to support participation for duration of study
• Subject must be willing and able to comply with the required food intake restrictions as outlined per protocol Subjects entering directly from completing the antecedent AMO-02-MD-2-003 study will not be considered eligible for the study without meeting all of the criteria below:
• Subjects who have completed the antecedent AMO-02-MD-2-003 study through V11
• Written, voluntary informed consent must be obtained before any study related procedures are conducted. Where a parent or LAR provides consent, there must also be assent from the subject (as required by local regulations)
• Subject's caregiver must be willing and able to support participation for duration of study
• Subject must be willing and able to comply with the required food intake restrictions as outlined per protocol Key
• Body mass index (BMI) less than 13.5 kg/m² or greater than 40 kg/m²
• New or change in medications/therapies within 4 weeks prior to Eligibility/Baseline Visit
• Use within 4 weeks prior to Eligibility/Baseline Visit of strong CYP3A4 inhibitors (eg.clarithromycin, telithromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole, nefazodone, idinavir and ritonavir)
• Concurrent use of drugs metabolized by CYP3A4 with a narrow therapeutic window (e.g. warfarin and digitoxin)
• Current enrollment in a clinical trial of an investigational drug or enrollment in a clinical trial of an investigational drug in the last 6 months other than the AMO-02- MD-2-003 study
• Existing or historical medical conditions or complications (eg. neurological, cardiovascular, renal, hepatic, gastrointestinal, endocrine or respiratory disease) that may impact the interpretability of the study results
• Hypersensitivity to tideglusib or any components of its formulation including allergy to strawberry
TruGraf® Long-term Clinical Outcomes Study (TRULO)
Isioma Agboli, MD - isiomaagboli@eurofins-tgi.com
• Written informed consent and HIPAA authorization;
• At least 18 years of age;
• Recipient of a primary or subsequent deceased-donor or living-donor kidney transplant;
• At least 3-months post-transplant;
• Stable serum creatinine (per Principal Investigator);
• Treated with any immunosuppressive regimen, and;
• Selected by provider to undergo OmniGraf™ (TruGraf® and TRAC™) testing as part of post-transplant care; and
• Recipient of a combined organ transplant with an extra-renal organ and/or islet cell transplant;
• Recipient of a previous non-renal solid organ and/or islet cell transplant;
• Known to be pregnant;
• Known to be infected with HIV;
• Known to have Active BK nephropathy;
• Known to have nephrotic proteinuria (Per Principal Investigator);
• Participation in other biomarker studies testing clinical utility.
Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease in HIV Database
Tinsay A Woreta, MD, MPH - tworeta1@jhmi.edu
Impella®-Supported PCI in High-Risk Patients With Complex Coronary Artery Disease and Reduced Left Ventricular Function (PROTECT IV)
Charles (Chuck) Simonton, MD FACC FSCAI - csimonton@abiomed.com
• Age ≥18 years and ≤90 years
• Clinical presentation and baseline left ventricular function are as follows: Either 2A or 2B must be present A. Subject has CCS or NSTEMI with an LVEF ≤40% NOTE: The LVEF must be quantitatively measured as ≤40% by echo within 30 days assuming no change in clinical condition. If multiple echos have been performed within 30-days, the most recent test must be used to qualify the patient. NOTE: Subject qualifies if the quantitative site read LVEF is ≤30%; if the quantitative site read is \>30% - ≤40% the Echo Core Lab must confirm the LVEF is ≤40% before subject enrollment (Core Lab will provide \<48-hour turnaround). Similarly, if the site read is qualitative only (i.e., only provides broad ranges without detailed LVEF quantification), the Echo Core Lab must confirm the LVEF is ≤40% before subject enrollment. OR B. Subject has STEMI ≥24 hours and \<30 days after symptom onset with an LVEF ≤30% NOTE: In patients qualifying with recent STEMI, the LVEF must be demonstrated to be ≤30% by quantitative echocardiography after the primary PCI procedure (if performed) and within 72-hours prior to the planned randomization. If primary PCI was not performed, the qualifying echocardiogram will be the one taken during the index hospitalization closest to the index procedure. If the site read is qualitative only (i.e., only provides broad ranges without detailed LVEF quantification), the Echo Core Lab must confirm the LVEF is ≤30% before subject enrollment.
• Local heart team (interventional cardiologist and cardiac surgeon) has determined that PCI is indicated and is the most appropriate management for the patient
• Complex PCI will be performed: Either 4A or 4B must be met A. One of the following must be present: i. Triple vessel disease is present (visually-assessed angiographic DS ≥80% \[or ≥40% if non-invasive evidence of ischemia on a localizing stress test or invasive evidence of ischemia (FFR ≤0.80 or iFR ≤0.89)\] is present in all 3 epicardial coronary artery distributions in a main vessel or branch with visually-assessed reference vessel diameter ≥2.5 mm) with PCI planned in ≥2 of these vessels in the proximal or mid LAD, proximal or mid-LCX or proximal, mid- or distal RCA \[i.e., not a branch vessel\]) OR ii. Left main distal bifurcation or trifurcation disease (visually-assessed DS ≥50% \[or DS ≥30% if non-invasive evidence of ischemia in both the anterior and posterolateral distributions or left main IVUS MLA ≤6.0 mm2 or FFR ≤0.80 or iFR ≤0.89\] is present) with planned intervention of the left main plus at least 2 branch vessels (i.e., the ostial LAD, ostial LCX or ostial ramus) OR iii. Left main equivalent disease with both ostial LAD and ostial LCX having visually-assessed angiographic DS ≥80% \[or ≥40% if non-invasive evidence of ischemia on a localizing stress test or invasive evidence of ischemia (FFR ≤0.80 or iFR ≤0.89\] and requiring intervention in both branches OR iv. Intervention of the last remaining vessel (native coronary artery or bypass graft) OR B. Multivessel disease is present (visually-assessed angiographic DS ≥80% \[or ≥40% if non-invasive or invasive evidence of ischemia is present\] in ≥2 of the 3 epicardial coronary artery distributions in a main vessel or branch with visually-assessed reference vessel diameter ≥2.5 mm) and PCI is planned of at least 2 separate complex lesions in main vessels or branch vessels each having one or more of the following characteristics: i. Long lesion (≥28 mm visually assessed) requiring ≥30 mm stent length (single or multiple) ii. Severe angiographic calcification (see Protocol definition) or requiring atheroablation iii. Any left main morphology not in Criterion A requiring intervention (e.g., isolated ostial or mid-shaft left main lesion or distal left main bifurcation lesion with a planned single provisional stent technique) iv. Non-left main bifurcation lesion requiring intervention in both the main branch and side branch v. CTO (TIMI 0 Flow) vi. Giant thrombus (length ≥3x vessel diameter) vii. SVG (other than focal (\<5 mm) disease of the proximal or distal anastomosis or in-stent restenosis) NOTES:
• The multiple lesions can be in the same vessel if separated by ≥10 mm - however, each separate lesion has to have one or more of the above characteristics
• PCI may be performed on additional non-qualifying lesions (i.e., without 1 or more of the above high-risk characteristics) as long as there are at least two lesions also undergoing PCI with each having 1 or more of the above characteristics)
• There are 2 exceptions to the rule that each separate lesion must have one or more of the above characteristics (as in Inclusion Criterion 4B above): The subject may qualify if undergoing complex PCI of a single lesion that has 2 or more of the above complex characteristics (as in Inclusion Criterion 4B above) if also: i. There is a CTO of a proximal or mid-LAD, proximal or mid-LCX or proximal, mid- or distal RCA (i.e., not a branch vessel) that will not be treated OR ii. The subject qualifies with recent STEMI with an LVEF ≤30% and the complex PCI is planned in a non-infarct vessel (i.e., a complex PCI in the infarct vessel does not qualify)
• Subject or legal guardian (permitted at US sites only) agrees to randomization and to follow all study procedures and provides informed, written consent
• STEMI ≤24 hours from the onset of ischemic symptoms or at any time if mechanical complications of transmural infarction are present (e.g., VSD, papillary muscle rupture, etc.)
• Cardiogenic shock (SBP \<80 mmHg for ≥30 mins and not responsive to intravenous fluids or hemodynamic deterioration for any duration requiring pressors or mechanical circulatory support, including IABP)
• Subject is presently or recently intubated for the current admission (NOTE: recently intubated patients must be extubated for \>24 hours with full neurologic recovery)
• Cardiorespiratory arrest related to the current admission unless subject is extubated for \>24 hours with full neurologic recovery and hemodynamically stable
• Any contraindication or inability to Impella placement in both the left and right common femoral artery based on clinical or imaging findings, including iliofemoral artery diameter \<5 mm, tortuous vascular anatomy or severe bilateral peripheral vascular disease of the iliac or femoral arteries that can't be adequately treated (e.g., with intravascular lithotripsy) NOTES:
• Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) or contrast angiography to assess the aorta and iliofemoral vasculature to ensure Impella compatibility must be performed within 90 days prior to randomization. It is recommended that this evaluation be performed prior to the index procedure. Absent a qualifying pre-procedure imaging study, contrast angiography of the potential Impella access vessel(s) must be performed in the Cath Lab before the planned enrollment after which the subject may be randomized if he/she still qualifies. Of note, if pre-procedure imaging was performed and after this test but before randomization there was a worsening in PVD symptoms, repeat imaging must be performed prior to randomization.
• If iliofemoral peripheral vascular disease is present precluding Impella use that can be adequately treated with angioplasty, atherectomy or lithotripsy (without a stent), the subject can be enrolled if such treatment is undertaken and is successful and uncomplicated - randomization must not be performed until such successful and uncomplicated treatment
• Iliofemoral stents placed within 6 months of enrollment with planned vascular access through these vascular segments
• Vascular access for Impella is required in any location other than the left or right common femoral artery (i.e., axillary access, transcaval access, etc., for Impella access are not permitted)
• Known left ventricular thrombus
• Incessant ventricular arrhythmias that would likely preclude stable Impella positioning
• Severe aortic stenosis or severe aortic insufficiency
• Prior mechanical valve or self-expanding TAVR (NOTE: prior bioprosthetic surgical valve or balloon expandable TAVR implanted \>24 hours pre-procedure is acceptable)
• Prior CABG within three (3) months or successful prior PCI of at least one (1) attempted lesion within 12 months (including during the index hospitalization prior to randomization), that has not experienced stent thrombosis or restenosis during that 12-month period; the one (1) exception is that patients may be enrolled if a primary PCI for STEMI was performed during the index hospitalization without MCS and that was ≥24 hours and \<30 days prior to randomization. NOTE: Successful PCI for this exclusion criterion is defined as a visually-assessed angiographic DS ≤50% in at least one (1) attempted lesion.
• Prior placement of IABP, Impella or any other MCS device for any reason during the index admission, prior to randomization
• Known severe pulmonary hypertension (right ventricular systolic pressure (RVSP) on echo or pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PASP) on right heart catheterization) \>70 mm Hg unless active vasodilator therapy in the Cath Lab is able to reduce the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) to \<3 Wood Units or between 3 and 4.5 Wood Units with v-wave less than twice the mean of the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
• Symptoms or signs of severe RV dysfunction, such as anasarca (NOTE: Leg edema alone does not necessarily indicate severe RV dysfunction if the investigator believes it is due to LV dysfunction)
• Severe tricuspid insufficiency
• Platelet count \<75,000 cells/mm3, bleeding diathesis or active bleeding, coagulopathy or unwilling to receive blood transfusions
• On dialysis
• Prior stroke with any permanent neurologic deficit within the previous three (3) months, or any prior intracranial hemorrhage or any prior subdural hematoma or known intracranial pathology pre-disposing to intracranial bleeding, such as an arteriovenous malformation or mass
• Taking a chronic oral anticoagulant that cannot be safely discontinued for at least 72-hours before and 72-hours after the index procedure (if a vitamin K antagonist) or that cannot be safely discontinued for at least 48 hours before and 48 hours after the index procedure (for a direct acting oral anticoagulant)
• Plan for any surgery within 6 months necessitating discontinuing antiplatelet agents
• Pregnant or child-bearing potential unless negative pregnancy test within 1 week
• Participation in the active treatment or follow-up phase of another clinical study of an investigational drug or device that has not reached its primary endpoint
• Any medical or psychiatric condition such as dementia, alcoholism or substance abuse which may preclude informed consent or interfere with any of the study procedures, including follow-up visits
• Any non-cardiac condition with life expectancy \<3 years (e.g., cirrhosis, oxygen or oral steroid dependent COPD, cancer not in remission, etc.)
• Subject is currently hospitalized for definite or suspected COVID-19
• Subject has previously been symptomatic with or hospitalized for COVID-19 unless he/she has been discharged (if hospitalized) and asymptomatic for ≥4 weeks and has returned to his/her prior baseline (pre-COVID) clinical condition
• Subject is asymptomatic (never ill) and COVID-19 PCR/antigen test is positive within the prior four (4) weeks unless a) subject remains asymptomatic for ≥2 weeks after the last positive test or b) the positive test occurred within six (6) months after the subject received a COVID vaccine
• Subject belongs to a vulnerable population (defined as individuals with mental disability, impoverished persons, homeless persons, nomads, refugees and those permanently incapable of giving informed consent; vulnerable populations also may include members of a group with a hierarchical structure such as university students, subordinate hospital and laboratory personnel, employees of the Sponsor, members of the armed forces and persons kept in detention)
Acetaminophen and Ascorbate in Sepsis: Targeted Therapy to Enhance Recovery (ASTER)
Katie Oldmixon, RN - coldmixon@mgh.harvard.edu
• Age ≥ 18 years
• Sepsis defined as:
• Clinical evidence of a known or suspected infection and orders written to administer antibiotics AND
• Hypotension as defined by the need for any vasopressor (and 1 liter of fluid already administered intravenously for resuscitation) OR respiratory failure defined by mechanical ventilation, BIPAP or CPAP at any level, or greater than or equal to 6 liters/minute of supplemental oxygen (criterion b must be met at time of enrollment)
• Admitted to a study site ICU (or intent for the patient to be admitted to a study site ICU) within 36 hours of presentation to the ED or admitted to the study site ICU within 36 hours of presentation to any acute care hospital
• No consent/inability to obtain consent from the participant or a legally authorized representative
• Patient unable to be randomized within 36 hours of presentation to the ED or within 36 hours of presentation to any acute care hospital
• Diagnosis of cirrhosis by medical chart review
• Liver transplant recipient
• AST or ALT greater than five times upper limit of normal
• Diagnosis of ongoing chronic alcohol use disorder/abuse by chart review; if medical record unclear, use Appendix F
• Clinical diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis or other condition such as profound hypoglycemia that requires hourly blood glucose monitoring (applicable to the 4 arm (Vitamin C/placebo vs. Acetaminophen/placebo) phase of the trial)
• Hypersensitivity to Acetaminophen or Vitamin C
• Patient, surrogate or physician not committed to full support (Exception: a patient will not be excluded if he/she would receive all supportive care except for attempts at resuscitation from cardiac arrest)
• Home assisted ventilation (via tracheotomy or noninvasive) except for CPAP/BIPAP used only for sleep-disordered breathing
• Chronic dialysis
• Current active kidney stone (applicable to the 4 arm (Vitamin C/placebo vs. Acetaminophen/placebo) phase of the trial)
• Multiple (>1) episodes of prior kidney stones, known history of oxalate kidney stones, or history of oxalate nephropathy. (applicable to the 4 arm (Vitamin C/placebo vs. Acetaminophen/placebo) phase of the trial)
• Kidney transplant recipient (applicable to the 4 arm (Vitamin C/placebo vs. Acetaminophen/placebo) phase of the trial)
• Use of home oxygen >3L/minute via nasal cannula for chronic cardiopulmonary disease
• Moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours
• Underlying malignancy or other condition with estimated life expectancy of less than 1 month
• Pregnant woman, woman of childbearing potential without a documented negative urine or serum pregnancy test during the current hospitalization, or woman who is breast feeding
• Prisoner
• Treating team unwilling to enroll because of intended use of Acetaminophen or Vitamin C
• Treating team unwilling to use plasma (as opposed to point of care testing) for glucose monitoring (applicable to the 4 arm (Vitamin C/placebo vs. Acetaminophen/placebo) phase of the trial).
Trifecta-Kidney cfDNA-MMDx Study
Konrad S Famulski, PhD - konrad@ualberta.ca
Long-Term Follow-Up of Patients Who Have Participated in Children's Oncology Group Studies
Gwaltney, Lindsey - lbgwaltney@vcu.edu
Testing the Addition of the Drug Apalutamide to the Usual Hormone Therapy and Radiation Therapy After Surgery for Prostate Cancer, INNOVATE Trial (INNOVATE)
Loney, Shenise - loneys2@vcu.edu
Endovascular Ablation of the Right Greater Splanchnic Nerve in Subjects Having HFpEF (Rebalance-HF) (Rebalance-HF)
Sears, Melissa, L - melissa.sears@vcuhealth.org
• Subjects ? 40 years of age
• Chronic heart failure defined as at least one of the following:
• Symptoms of HF requiring current treatment with diuretics (intermittent or continuous) for > 30 days, AND
• NYHA class II with a history of > NYHA class II in the past year, NYHA class III, or ambulatory NYHA class IV symptoms (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea, dyspnea on mild or moderate exertion) at screening; or signs of HF (any rales post cough, chest x-ray demonstrating pulmonary congestion), AND
• > 1 HF hospital admission (with HF as the primary, or secondary diagnosis);
• OR - treatment with intravenous (IV) diuretics, or intensification of oral diuresis for HF in a healthcare facility within the 12 months prior to study entry;
• OR - NT-pro BNP value > 150 pg/ml in normal sinus rhythm, > 450 pg/ml in atrial fibrillation within the past 6 months;
• OR - BNP value > 50 pg/ml in normal sinus rhythm, > 150 pg/ml in atrial fibrillation within the past 6 months.
• Ongoing stable GDMT HF management (unless unable to tolerate GDMT) and management of potential comorbidities according to the 2017 ACCF/AHA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure, with no significant changes [>100% increase or 50% decrease] for a minimum of 1 month prior to screening, that is expected to be maintained without change for at least 3 months.
• LVEF ? 50 % (site determined by TTE) in the past 3 months.
• Site determined elevated PCWP documented by right heart catheterization by PCWP ? 25 mmHg during supine ergometer exercise a. PCWP to be evaluated by a Swan Ganz procedure performed either prior to the day of the index procedure or on the day of the index procedure
• Subject is willing and able to provide appropriate study-specific informed consent, follow protocol procedures, and comply with follow-up visit requirements.
• MI (type I) and/or percutaneous cardiac intervention within past 3 months; CABG in past 3 months, or current indication for coronary revascularization.
• Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy initiated within the past 3 months prior to screening.
• Advanced heart failure defined as one or more of the below:
• ACC/AHA/ESC Stage D heart failure, non-ambulatory NYHA Class IV HF
• Cardiac index < 2.0 L/min/m2
• Inotropic infusion (continuous or intermittent) for LV EF< 30% within the past 6 months prior to screening
• Subject is on the cardiac transplant waiting list
• BMI > 45 kg/m2
• Inability to perform 6-minute walk test (distance < 100 meters), OR ability to perform 6-minute walk test distance > 450 meters.
• Admission for HF within the 30 days prior to planned index procedure.
• In the last 3 years an ejection fraction (EF) below 40
• Systolic BP < 100 mmHg or > 170 mmHg despite appropriate medical management.
• Symptomatic orthostatic hypotension or orthostatic hypotension requiring treatment (orthostatic hypotension is defined as systolic blood pressure decrease of >20mmHg and/or increase in heart rate >20 bpm upon going from supine to standing position).
• Arterial oxygen saturation < 90 % on room air.
• Presence of significant valve disease defined by the site cardiologist as:
• Mitral valve stenosis defined as <1.5 cm2 (or greater than mild)
• Mitral valve regurgitation defined as grade > 3+ MR
• Tricuspid valve regurgitation defined as grade > 3+ TR
• Aortic valve disease defined as > 3+ AR or > severe AS
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, restrictive cardiomyopathy, constrictive pericarditis, cardiac amyloidosis, or other infiltrative cardiomyopathy (e.g., hemochromatosis, sarcoidosis)
• Vessel tortuosity or variant vascular anatomy that could preclude the access or maneuvering of the interventional device from the access site to target vessel. This includes previous spine surgery that may impact the ability to access and treat the target sites of T11 and T10.
• Mean resting right atrial pressure (RAP) > 20 mmHg based upon screening right heart catheterization.
• History of severe liver cirrhosis
• Dialysis dependent; or estimated-GFR <25 ml/min/1.73 m2 by MDRD equation.
• Baseline status of persistent atrial fibrillation with resting HR >100 beats per minute that could obfuscate RHC interpretation.
• Chronic pulmonary disease requiring continuous home oxygen OR hospitalization for exacerbation (including intubations) in the 12 months before study entry OR known history of GOLD Class II or higher COPD.
• Currently participating in conflicting investigational drug or device study.
• Life expectancy <12 months for non-cardiovascular reasons.
• Any condition, or history of illness or surgery that, in the opinion of the Investigator, might confound the results of the study or pose additional risks to the patient.
• Females who are not pregnant or lactating and not or planning to become pregnant for the duration of the study during the next year.
Therapeutic Hepatitis C Virus Vaccine
Smith, Paula - paula.smith@vcuhealth.org
• Documentation of chronic hepatitis C infection based on serum positivity for HCV RNA for at least 6 months interval. HCV genotype will be recorded. All genotypes will be eligible.
• Patients who are not under DAA treatment.
• Liver fibrosis (by Metavir stage F1 or F0) within one year of the screening visit, documenting extent of liver disease consistent with chronic hepatitis C with evidence of inflammation and/or fibrosis. Fibrosis scaling is based on an ultrasound based elastography (FibroScan, Echosen, Paris France) with cutoff of 7.5 kPa or liver biopsy.
• Screening laboratory values within institutional normal range, with the exception of liver enzymes ? 3 ULN and bilirubin <1.5 ULN, or judged to be not clinically significant by clinical investigator.
• Ability and willingness of subject to give written informed consent.
• Negative pregnancy test on the day prior to each vaccination.
• Willingness to use adequate contraception by study participants. Subjects must agree not to participate in a conception process (e.g., active attempts to become pregnant or to impregnate, sperm donation, or in vitro fertilization), and if participating in sexual activity that could lead to pregnancy, subjects must use a form of contraception as listed below while on study vaccine and for 60 days after stopping study vaccine. Women without reproductive potential (i.e., have reached menopause or undergone hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy, or tubal ligation) or women whose male partner has undergone successful vasectomy with documented azoospermia or has documented azoospermia for any other reason, are eligible without requiring the use of contraception.
• History of decompensated liver disease, including but not restricted to, portal hypertension as manifested by a known history of gastroesophageal varices, variceal bleeding, ascites or encephalopathy, histopathologic or clinical evidence of cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma, or renal impairment consistent with hepatorenal syndrome; history of significant other non-HCV chronic liver disease, i.e. alcoholic hepatitis, autoimmune hepatitis.
• History of hematologic disease (e.g., cryoglobulinemia, lymphoma), renal disease, dermatologic disease (e.g., lichen planus, porphyria cutanea tarda).
• Seropositive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) or HIV-1 antibody.
• Autoimmune diseases or clinically serious cardiac, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, hepatic, renal or neurologic disease, which in the opinion of the investigator will compromise ability to participate in the study.
• Previous receipt of any HCV experimental vaccine.
• Pregnancy and breast-feeding.
• Prior or current systemic cancer chemotherapy.
• Investigational agents and immunomodulators (cyclosporine, hematological growth factors, systemic corticosteroids, interleukins or interferons) within 90 days prior to study entry. NOTE: Subjects may not be on antiretroviral agents not yet approved by the FDA as part of a clinical trial or expanded access program.
• Anaphylaxis or allergy to vaccine components.
• Active drug or alcohol use or dependence that, in the opinion of the investigator, would interfere with adherence to study requirements.
• Any other serious diseases other than HCV infection including current or recent (within 5 years) cancers.
• Liver fibrosis with Metavir stage F2 or above.
• Subjects with diabetes mellitus, who are at higher risk for more rapid progression of fibrosis.
• Subjects who are immunocompromised or immunosuppressed due to disease or medications.
• Subjects with any laboratory abnormalities Grade 3 or greater.
• Women who are lactating.
Preventing Firearm Violence in Youth: A Hospital-based Prevention Strategy
Nicholas Thomson - Nicholas.Thomson@vcuhealth.org
• Youth are aged 10-17 years and their adult caregivers are aged 18 years and older
• Receiving treatment in the hospital for a violence-related injury (e.g., gunshot wound) or referred to BTG/IVPP services
• English speaking
• Eligible for BTG services (which includes living within the BTG catchment area for the hospital; Richmond City and neighboring counties)
• Youth are \< 10 years old
• Youth are \> 18 years old
• Prisoners
A Study to Learn About How Well Riociguat Works, How Safe it is and How it is Used Under Real World Conditions in Patients in the United States Who Are Receiving Riociguat for High Blood Pressure in the Arteries That Carry Blood From the Heart to the Lungs (Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension, PAH) (ROAR)
Bayer Clinical Trials Contact - clinical-trials-contact@bayer.com
• Patients aged ≥18 years at the time of riociguat treatment initiation
• Diagnosis of PAH per National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) 2018 classification
• Decision to initiate treatment with riociguat as per investigator's routine treatment practice made prior to enrollment in the study
• Initiation of riociguat, as per the FDA-approved US label:
• At enrollment OR
• ≤90 days prior to enrollment, with a documented titration regimen (defined as all documented dose changes including, but not limited to: starting dose and dates and highest tolerated dose and dates)
• Signed informed consent
• Previously treated with and discontinued use of riociguat for any reason prior to study enrollment (discontinuation defined as an interruption of therapy ≥30 days)
• Participating in any of the following:
• Blinded clinical trial
• Clinical trial involving an unapproved drug
• Investigational program with interventions outside of routine clinical practice
• Life expectancy <12 months
• Contraindicated to receive riociguat per the FDA approved US label
• Use of nitrates or NO donors in any form
• Use of PDE5 inhibitors
• PH associated with idiopathic interstitial pneumonias
• Unable or unwilling to provide informed consent
A Pilot Study to Examine the Impact of a Therapy Dog Intervention on Loneliness and Related Health Outcomes in Vulnerable Populations
Nancy R. Gee, PhD - Nancy.Gee@vcuhealth.org
• 18 years of age or older
• Projected to be admitted to the hospital for the upcoming four days
• Speak English
• Able to provide consent.
• Fear of, or allergy to, dogs
• Documented contact precautions
• Cognitive impairment that prevents consent or completion of measures.
Evaluation of Dosing Procedures of Chemotherapy Treatment (Carboplatin) With the Contrast Agent Iohexol
Washington, Sonya, L - slwashington@vcu.edu
Phase 3 Study of MRTX849 +Cetuximab vs Chemo in Patients W/ Advanced Colorectal Cancer w/ KRAS G12C
Donovan, Carrie - cdonovan2@vcu.edu
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of colorectal carcinoma with KRAS G12C mutation in tumor tissue.
• Prior receipt of 1st line treatment in advanced CRC with a fluoropyrimidine-based chemotherapy regimen containing either oxaliplatin or irinotecan, and radiographically documented progression of disease on or after treatment.
• Prior treatment with a therapy targeting KRAS G12C mutation (e.g., AMG 510).
• Prior treatment with an anti-EGFR antibody (e.g., cetuximab or panitumumab).
• Active brain metastasis
Novel Experimental COVID-19 Therapies Affecting Host Response (NECTAR)
Sheri L. Dixon, B.S.N., R.N. - sheri.dixon@vumc.org
• Hospitalized for COVID-19
• ≥18 years of age
• SARS-CoV-2 infection, documented by:
• a nucleic acid test (NAT) or equivalent testing within 3 days prior to randomization OR
• documented by NAT or equivalent testing more than 3 days prior to randomization AND progressive disease suggestive of ongoing SARS-CoV-2 infection per the responsible investigator (For non-NAT tests, only those deemed with equivalent specificity to NAT by the protocol team will be allowed. A central list of allowed non- NAT tests is maintained in Appendix E. Appendix E. Non-NAT Tests Deemed with Equivalent Specificity to NAT by the Protocol Team).
• Hypoxemia, defined as SpO2 <92% on room air, new receipt of supplemental oxygen to maintain SpO2 ≥92%, or increased supplemental oxygen to maintain SpO2 ≥92% for a patient on chronic oxygen therapy
• Symptoms or signs of acute COVID-19, defined as one or more of the following:
• cough
• reported or documented body temperature of 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit or greater
• shortness of breath
• chest pain
• infiltrates on chest imaging (x-ray, CT scan, lung ultrasound) Exclusion criteria
• Onset of COVID-19 symptom fulfilling inclusion criterion #5 >14 days prior to randomization
• Hospitalized with hypoxemia (as defined in inclusion #4) for >72 hours prior to randomization (the 72-hour window for randomization begins when the patient first meets the hypoxemia inclusion criteria after hospital admission)
• Pregnancy
• Breastfeeding
• Prisoners
• End-stage renal disease (ESRD) on dialysis
• Patient undergoing comfort care measures only such that treatment focuses on end-of-life symptom management over prolongation of life.
• The treating clinician expects inability to participate in study procedures or participation would not be in the best interests of the patient
• Known allergy/hypersensitivity to IMP or its excipients The following exclusion criteria differ from the master protocol criteria: TXA127-specific exclusion criteria(4/20/2022 Closed to Accrual):
• Patient unable to participate or declines participation in the TXA127/Ang(1-7) arm.
• History of sensitivity (including angioedema) or allergic reaction to medication targeting the RAAS system including study medications or other allergy in the opinion of the investigator that contraindicates participation (not applicable to fostamatinib arm)
• Hemodynamic instability - defined as MAP < 65 mmHg at time of randomization confirmed on two measurements 5 minutes apart OR vasopressors at or above norepinephrine equivalent of 0.1 mcg/kg/min in prior 4 hours to maintain MAP > 65 mmHg.
• Known severe renal artery stenosis.
• Known significant left ventricular outflow obstruction, such as obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy or severe aortic or mitral stenosis.
• Randomized in another trial evaluating RAAS modulation in the prior 30 days TRV027-specific exclusion criteria (4/20/2022 Closed to Accrual):
• Participants on ARBs will be excluded from this study arm.
• Patient unable to participate or declines participation in the TRV027 arm.
• History of sensitivity (including angioedema) or allergic reaction to medication targeting the RAAS system including study medications or other allergy in the opinion of the investigator that contraindicates participation (not applicable to fostamatinib arm)
• Hemodynamic instability - defined as MAP < 65 mmHg at time of randomization confirmed on two measurements 5 minutes apart OR vasopressors at or above norepinephrine equivalent of 0.1 mcg/kg/min in prior 4 hours to maintain MAP > 65 mmHg.
• Known severe renal artery stenosis.
• Known significant left ventricular outflow obstruction, such as obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy or severe aortic or mitral stenosis.
• Randomized in another trial evaluating RAAS modulation in the prior 30 days Fostamatinib specific exclusion criteria: The following exclusion criteria differ from the master protocol criteria:
• Randomized in another trial evaluating fostamatinib in the prior 30 days Study arm exclusion criteria measured within 24 hours prior to randomization:
• AST or ALT ≥ 5 × upper limit of normal (ULN) or ALT or AST ≥ 3 × ULN and total bilirubin ≥ 2 × ULN
• SBP > 160 mmHg or DBP > 100 mmHg at the time of screening and randomization
• ANC < 1000/mL
• Patient is anticipated to require a strong CYP3A inhibitor (Atazanavir, Certinib, Clarithromycin, Cobicistat and cobicistat-containing coformulations, Idelalisib,Indinavir, Itraconazole, Ketoconazole, Levoketoconazole, Lonafarnib, Lopinavir, Mifeprostone, Mibefradil, Nefazodone, Nelfinavir, Ombitasvir-paritaprevir-ritonavir plus dasabuvir, Posaconazole, Ribociclib Ritonavir, Saquinavir, Telithromycin, Troleandomycin, Tucatinib, Voriconazole) from randomization to 21 days post-randomization. For a full list of CYP3A4 substrates, please reference this regularly updated list: https://drug-interactions.medicine.iu.edu/MainTable.aspx.
• Patient unable to participate or declines participation in the fostamatinib arm.
CONTIGO - A Narrative Intervention to Enhance Genetic Counseling and Testing
Alejandra Hurtado de Mendoza, Ph.D - ahd28@georgetown.edu
Eliminating Monitor Overuse Trial (EMO Trial) (EMO Trial)
Christopher P Bonafide, MD, MSCE - bonafide@chop.edu
S1827 (MAVERICK) Testing Whether the Use of Brain Scans Alone Instead of Brain Scans Plus Preventive Brain Radiation Affects Lifespan in Patients With Small Cell Lung Cancer (MAVERICK)
Hamilton, Melanie, R - mrhamilton2@vcu.edu
MYTHS - MYocarditis THerapy With Steroids (MYTHS)
Enrico Ammirati, MD, PhD - enrico.ammirati@ospedaleniguarda.it
Safety, Tolerability, and Efficacy of AXA1125 in NASH With Fibrosis (EMMPACT)
Margaret Koziel, MD - clinicaltrials@axcellahealth.com
• Willing to participate in the study and provide written informed consent.
• Male and female adults aged > 18 years.
• Must have NASH and fibrosis on a liver biopsy sample
• If a historical liver biopsy is used for Screening, obtained within 6 months prior to Screening;
• Subjects may have a diagnosis of T2DM
• History or presence of liver disease (other than NAFLD or NASH)
• History or presence of cirrhosis and/or history or presence of hepatic decompensation
A Study to Evaluate Safety and Efficacy of Selinexor Versus Treatment of Physician's Choice in Participants With Previously Treated Myelofibrosis
Karyopharm Medical Information - clinicaltrials@karyopharm.com
• A diagnosis of primary MF or post-essential thrombocythemia (ET) or post-polycythemia (PV) MF according to the 2016 World Health Organization (WHO) classification of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN), confirmed by the most recent local pathology report.
• Previous treatment with JAK inhibitors for at least 6 months.
• Measurable splenomegaly during the screening period as demonstrated by spleen volume of ≥450 centimeter cube (cm^3) by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computerized tomography (CT) scan.
• Relapsed, Refractory or Intolerant to JAK inhibitors as defined as meeting one of the criteria below:
• less than (<) 35% spleen volume reduction by MRI or CT-scan (from baseline) or
• <50% decrease in spleen size by palpation (from baseline) or an increase of at least 3 cm with the spleen at least 5 cm below the left costal margin or
• Spleen volume increase greater than (>) 25% from nadir or a return to within 10% of baseline after any initial response or
• Treatment with JAK inhibitor was complicated by development of red blood cells (RBC) transfusion requirement (2 units per month for 2 month); or grade 3 thrombocytopenia, anemia, hematoma/hemorrhage; or grade 2 non-hematologic toxicity while on JAK inhibitors
• Participants ≥18 years of age.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) less than or equal to (≤) 2.
• Platelet count ≥75*10^9 per liter (/L).
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1.5*10^9/L.
• Serum direct bilirubin ≤1.5*upper limit of normal (ULN); aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤2.5*ULN.
• Calculated creatinine clearance (CrCl) >15 milliliter (mL)/minute (min) based on the Cockcroft and Gault formula.
• Participants with active hepatitis B virus (HBV) are eligible if antiviral therapy for hepatitis B has been given for >8 weeks and viral load is <100 International Units (IU)/mL.
• Participants with untreated hepatitis C virus (HCV) are eligible if there is a documentation of negative viral load per institutional standard.
• Participants with history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are eligible if they have cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4)+ T-cell counts ≥350 cells/microliter (mcL), negative viral load per institutional standard, and no history of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining opportunistic infections in the last year.
• Female participants of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test at screening and agree to use highly effective methods of contraception throughout the study and for at least 90 days after the last dose of selinexor, or for the duration as stated on the label (SmPC/USPI) for those on the comparator drug (physician's choice arm). Childbearing potential excludes: Age >50 years and naturally amenorrhoeic for >1 year, or previous bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, or hysterectomy.
• Male participants who are sexually active must use highly effective methods of contraception throughout the study and for at least 90 days after the last dose of selinexor, or for the duration as stated on the label (SmPC/USPI) for those on the comparator drug (physician's choice arm). Male participants must agree not to donate sperm during the study treatment period.
• Participants must sign written informed consent in accordance with federal, local and institutional guidelines.
• >5% blasts in peripheral blood or >10% blasts in bone marrow (i.e., accelerated phase).
• Previous treatment with selinexor or other exportin 1 (XPO1) inhibitors.
• Use of any standard or experimental anti-MF therapy <21 days prior to Cycle 1 Day 1 (hydroxyurea or growth factors are allowed).
• Impairment of gastrointestinal (GI) function or GI disease that could significantly alter the absorption of selinexor (Example: vomiting, or diarrhea that is Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) grade >1).
• Received strong cytochrome P450 3A (CYP3A) inhibitors ≤7 days prior to selinexor dosing or strong CYP3A inducers ≤14 days prior to selinexor dosing.
• Major surgery <28 days prior to cycle 1 day 1 (C1D1).
• Uncontrolled (ie, clinically unstable) infection requiring parenteral antibiotics, antivirals, or antifungals within 7 days prior to first dose of study treatment; however, prophylactic use of these agents is acceptable (including parenteral).
• Any life-threatening illness, medical condition, or organ system dysfunction which, in the Investigator's opinion, could compromise the participants safety, prevent the participant from giving informed consent, or being compliant with the study procedures.
• Female participants who are pregnant or lactating.
• Participants with contraindications to use of selinexor or all the drugs intended to be used in the comparative treatment arm.
Phase I Study of Inotuzumab With Augmented BFM Re-Induction for Patients With Relapsed/Refractory B-cell ALL (ALL-001)
Amy Smith, BS - AJB6BB@hscmail.mcc.virginia.edu
• Provision of signed and dated informed consent form
• Stated willingness to comply with all study procedures and availability for the duration of the study
• Diagnosed with CD-22 positive* B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia or B-cell Lymphoblastic Lymphoma (Philadelphia chromosome negative) * For the purposes of this study, CD-22 positive will be defined based on the analysis completed for diagnostic purposes.
• Male or female, aged 16-60 years
• ECOG performance status of 0-2
• Left ventricular ejection fraction ≥ 50% measured by echocardiogram or MUGA
• Either relapsed following remission after initial induction therapy or refractory to induction therapy
• Adequate organ function, including serum creatinine ≤ 1.6 mg/dL OR creatinine clearance >50 ml/min by Cockgroft-Gault formula, bilirubin ≤ 1.5 mg/dL (except in patients with Gilbert's disease), AST, ALT and alkaline phosphatase ≤ 3 x upper limit of normal (elevation exceeding this threshold of either AST OR ALT would not meet eligibility)
• For females of reproductive potential: negative pregnancy test
• For females and males of reproductive potential: agreement to use adequate contraception during study participation and for an additional 1 year after the end of study treatment
• Agreement to adhere to Lifestyle Considerations throughout study duration and for 1 year following last study treatment.
• Past receipt of a total of ≥ 300 mg/m^2 doxorubicin equivalents (600 mg/m^2 daunorubicin, 60 mg/m^2 idarubicin, 75 mg/m^2 mitoxantrone)
• Current or past history of pancreatitis
• QT interval on electrocardiogram (ECG) > 0.45 by Framingham formula
• Known congestive heart failure
• Known allergy to asparaginase (only an exclusion criteria for participants enrolling in part 2)
• Presence of central nervous system (CNS) disease
• Pregnancy or lactation
• Chronic liver disease including chronic active hepatitis and/or cirrhosis
• Active Hepatitis B virus (HBV) by core antibody, surface antigen (HBsAg) or viral load
• Active Hepatitis C virus (HCV) (positive antibody test confirmed by viral load if antibody test is positive)
• Known history of infection with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
• Active or uncontrolled infections
• Abnormal baseline hepatic ultrasound (including Dopplers)
• Prior allogeneic stem cell transplant
• Prior use of inotuzumab ozogamicin
• Known diagnosis of hemochromatosis with iron overload
• Treatment with steroids or hydroxyurea for more than 7 days with each within the 2 weeks prior to registration -that is, each is allowed for up to 7 days
• Gastrointestinal tract disease causing the inability to take oral medication, malabsorption syndrome, a requirement for intravenous (IV) alimentation, prior surgical procedures affecting absorption, uncontrolled inflammatory GI disease, or inability to swallow medications.
• Philadelphia chromosome positive B-cell ALL