Search Results
Chest Drain Regular Flushing in Complicated Parapneumonic Effusions and Empyemas (RELIEF)
Samira Shojaee, MD, MPH - samira.shojaee@vumc.org
Testing Shorter Duration Radiation Therapy Versus the Usual Radiation Therapy in Patients With High Risk Prostate Cancer
ctrrecruit@vcu.edu
Adjuvant Pembrolizumab vs Observation Following Curative Resection for Stage I Non-small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) With Primary Tumors Between 1-4 cm
Greg Durm, MD - gdurm@iu.edu
A Phase 1/2 Study of VX-670 in Adult Participants With Myotonic Dystrophy 1 (DM1) (Galileo)
Medical Information - medicalinfo@vrtx.com
• Documented clinical diagnosis of DM1 with age of onset greater than (\>) 1 year of age and documented positive genetic test for DM1 in the subject with cytosine thymine guanine (CTG) repeat of at least 100 Key
• History of any illness or any clinical condition as pre-specified in the protocol Other protocol defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria may apply.
A Trial to Evaluate the Safety and Activity of Fruquintinib in Minority Populations With Advanced, Previously Treated Colorectal Cancer
Takeda Contact - medinfoUS@takeda.com
• Provide written (or electronic) informed consent.
• Male or female aged more than or equal to (≥)18 years.
• Presence of histologically and/or cytologically documented metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma. Rat sarcoma virus (RAS) status for each participant must be documented.
• Have been previously treated with standard approved therapies: * Fluoropyrimidine-, oxaliplatin-, and irinotecan-based chemotherapy, * An anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) biological therapy (e.g., bevacizumab, aflibercept, ramucirumab \[regorafenib is NOT an anti-VEGF biologic\]), and * If RAS wild-type and medically appropriate, an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) therapy (e.g., cetuximab, panitumumab). * If known microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H) or deficient mismatch repair (dMMR) tumor and medically appropriate, a programmed cell death protein 1 (PD1) inhibitor.
• Self-identify as Black and/or African American or Hispanic and/or Latino or as both.
• Body weight ≥40 kilograms (kg).
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 to 1 at screening.
• Have assessable disease according to RECIST version 1.1, assessed locally.
• In participants of childbearing potential, agreement to use highly effective form(s) of contraception, which results in a low failure rate (less than \[\<\]1 percent \[%\] per year) when used consistently and correctly, starting during the screening period, continuing throughout the entire trial period, and for 2 weeks after taking the last dose of the trial intervention. Such methods include oral (PO) hormonal contraception (combined estrogen/progestogen or progestogen-only) associated with inhibition of ovulation, intrauterine device, intrauterine hormone-releasing system (IUS), bilateral tubal ligation, vasectomized partner, or true sexual abstinence in line with the preferred and usual lifestyle of the participant. Those assigned male sex at birth must always use a condom.
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \<1.5 times 10\^9 per liter (10\^9/L), platelet count \<100 times 10\^9/L, or hemoglobin \<9.0 grams per deciliter (g/dL). Blood transfusion within 1 week prior to enrollment for the purpose of increasing the likelihood of eligibility is not allowed.
• Serum total bilirubin more than (\>)1.5 times the upper limit of normal range (ULN). Participants with previously documented Gilbert syndrome and bilirubin \<2 times ULN are eligible.
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) or aspartate aminotransferase (AST) \>2.5 times ULN in participants without hepatic metastases; ALT or AST \>5 times ULN in participants with hepatic metastases.
• Creatinine clearance \<30 milliliters per minute (mL/min). Creatinine clearance can either be measured in a 24-hour urine collection or estimated by the Cockcroft-Gault equation. Where available and appropriate, other formulae may be used to estimate clearance after consultation with the trial medical monitor.
• Urine dipstick or urinalysis with protein ≥2 positive or 24-hour urine protein ≥1.0 gram per 24 hours (g/24 hours). Participants with 1+ positive proteinuria must undergo a 24-hour urine collection to assess urine protein level.
• Uncontrolled hypertension, defined as systolic BP ≥140 millimeter of mercury (mmHg) and/or diastolic blood pressure (BP) ≥90 mmHg despite optimal medical management. The participant must have BP below both limits. Repeated assessments are permitted.
• International normalized ratio (INR) \>1.5 times ULN or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) \>1.5 times ULN, unless the participant is currently receiving or intended to receive anticoagulants for prophylactic purposes.
• History of or active gastric/duodenal ulcer or ulcerative colitis, active hemorrhage of an unresected gastrointestinal tumor, history of perforation or fistulas, or any other condition that could, in the investigator's judgment, result in gastrointestinal hemorrhage or perforation within the 6 months prior to screening.
• History or presence of hemorrhage from any other site (e.g, hemoptysis or hematemesis) within 2 months prior to screening.
• History of a thromboembolic event, including deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or arterial embolism within 6 months prior to screening.
• Stroke and/or transient ischemic attack within 12 months prior to screening.
• Clinically significant cardiovascular disease, including but not limited to, acute myocardial infarction or coronary artery bypass surgery within 6 months prior to enrollment, severe or unstable angina pectoris, New York Heart Association Class III/IV congestive heart failure, ventricular arrhythmias requiring treatment, or left ventricular ejection fraction \<50% by echocardiogram.
• QT interval, corrected using the Fridericia method (QTcF) \>480 milliseconds or any factors that increase the risk of QT interval, corrected based on the patient's heart rate (QTc) prolongation or risk of arrhythmic events such as hypokalemia, congenital long QT syndrome, or family history of long QT syndrome.
• Systemic antineoplastic therapies (except for that described in exclusion criterion no. 15) or any investigational therapy within 2 weeks prior to the first dose of the trial intervention, including chemotherapy, radical radiotherapy, hormonotherapy, biotherapy, and immunotherapy.
• Systemic small molecule targeted therapies (e.g., tyrosine kinase inhibitors \[TKIs\]) within 5 half-lives or 4 weeks (whichever is shorter) prior to the first dose of the trial intervention.
• Palliative radiotherapy for bone metastasis/lesion within 2 weeks prior to the initiation of the trial intervention.
• Brachytherapy (i.e., implantation of radioactive seeds) within 60 days prior to the first dose of the trial intervention.
• Surgery or invasive procedure (i.e., a procedure that includes a biopsy; central venous catheter placement is allowed) within 14 days prior to the first dose of the trial intervention or unhealed surgical incision.
• Any unresolved toxicities from previous antitumor treatments greater than NCI CTCAE, version 5.0, Grade 1 (except for alopecia or neurotoxicity Grade less than or equal to \[≤\]2).
• Known human immunodeficiency virus infection.
• Known history of active viral hepatitis. For participants with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load had to be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Participants with hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection who are currently on treatment are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load.
• Clinically uncontrolled active infection requiring intravenous (IV) antibiotics.
• Tumor invasion of a large vascular structure (e.g., pulmonary artery or superior or inferior vena cava).
• Those who are currently pregnant or lactating.
• Brain metastases and/or spinal cord compression untreated with surgery and/or radiotherapy, and without clinical imaging evidence of SD for 14 days or longer; participants requiring steroids within 4 weeks prior to the start of the trial intervention are to be excluded.
• Other malignancy, except for non-melanoma skin cancer, in situ cervical carcinoma, or bladder carcinoma (tumor in situ and T1) that had been adequately treated during the 5 years prior to screening. Participants with another primary malignancy that has been adequately treated may be included after consultation with the trial medical monitor.
• Inability to take medication PO, dysphagia, or an active gastric ulcer resulting from previous surgery (e.g., gastric bypass) or a severe gastrointestinal disease, or any other condition that investigators believe might affect absorption of the investigational medicinal product (IMP).
• Other disease, metabolic disorder, physical examination anomaly, abnormal laboratory result, or any other condition (e.g., current alcohol or drug abuse) that investigators suspect might prohibit use of the IMP, affect interpretation of trial results, or put the participant at undue risk of harm based on the investigator's assessment.
• Known hypersensitivity to fruquintinib or any of its inactive ingredients, including the azo dyes Tartrazine- Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD\&C) Yellow 5 and Sunset yellow For Coloring Food (FCF)-FD\&C Yellow 6.
• Received prior fruquintinib.
• Live vaccine ≤28 days before the first dose of the trial intervention. Seasonal vaccines for influenza are generally inactivated vaccines and are allowed. Intranasal vaccines are live vaccines and are not allowed.
• Use of strong inducers of cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) within 2 weeks before the first dose of the trial intervention.
A Study to Investigate Efficacy and Safety of BCL2 Inhibitor Sonrotoclax as Monotherapy and in Combination With Zanubrutinib in Adults With Waldenström Macroglobulinemia
Study Director - clinicaltrials@beonemed.com
Sleep for Stroke Management and Recovery Trial (Sleep SMART)
Kayla Novitski, MPH, CCRP - kcgossel@med.umich.edu
• Ischemic stroke within the prior 7 days.
• NIH Stroke Scale Score ≥1 at the time of enrollment Previous Inclusion Criteria, prior to 6/28/2024: 1\. Ischemic stroke or TIA with ABCD ≥4, within prior 14 days. Exclusion Criteria (for entire time period):
• pre-event inability to perform all of own basic ADLs
• unable to obtain informed consent from subject or legally authorized representative
• incarcerated
• known pregnancy
• current mechanical ventilation (can enroll later if this resolves) or tracheostomy
• current use of positive airway pressure, or use within one month prior to stroke
• anatomical or dermatologic anomaly that makes use of CPAP interface unfeasible
• severe bullous lung disease
• history of prior spontaneous pneumothorax or current pneumothorax
• hypotension requiring current treatment with pressors (can enroll later if this resolves)
• other specific medical circumstances that conceivably, in the opinion of the site PI, could render the patient at risk of harm from use of CPAP
• massive epistaxis or previous history of massive epistaxis
• cranial surgery or head trauma within the past 6 months, with known or possible CSF leak or pneumocephalus
• recent hemicraniectomy or suboccipital craniectomy (i.e. those whose bone has not yet been replaced), or any other recent bone removal procedure for relief of intracranial pressure
• current receipt of oxygen supplementation \>4 liters per minute
• current contact, droplet, respiratory/airborne precautions
A Study of Ficlatuzumab in Combination With Cetuximab in Participants With Recurrent or Metastatic (R/M) HPV Negative Head and Neck Squamous Cell Carcinoma (FIERCE-HN)
Clinical Trials Office - clinical@aveooncology.com
• 2 weeks (14 days) or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, for chemotherapeutic agents, small molecules, and checkpoint inhibitors
• 3 weeks (21 days) or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, for antibody-drug conjugates
• 4 weeks (28 days) for cell therapies
• 2 weeks (14 days) for radiation therapy * Any unresolved and significant toxicity (National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events \[NCI-CTCAE\] version 5.0) Grade \> 2 from previous anticancer therapy (including radiation therapy), other than alopecia * Significant cardiovascular disease, including: Cardiac failure New York Heart Association class III or IV; Myocardial infarction, severe or unstable angina within 6 months prior to randomization; History of serious ventricular arrhythmia (i.e., ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation) * Any other medical condition or psychiatric condition that, in the opinion of the Investigator, might interfere with the participant's involvement in the study or interfere with the interpretation of study results * History of prior malignancy within 2 years prior to randomization (except for adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer, carcinoma in situ of the breast or cervix, superficial bladder cancer, or early-stage prostate cancer, without evidence of recurrence; participants may or may not be on maintenance therapy) * Participants who are positive for HBV or HCV with indication of acute or chronic hepatitis (as defined in protocol) * Radiographic evidence (historical or at screening) of interstitial lung disease or idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis * Female participants who are pregnant or breastfeeding A full list of inclusion and exclusion criteria can be found in the protocol.
Study of Sacituzumab Govitecan-hziy and Pembrolizumab Versus Treatment of Physician's Choice in Patients With Triple Negative Breast Cancer Who Have Residual Invasive Disease After Surgery and Neoadjuvant Therapy (ASCENT-05/AFT-65 OptimICE-RD/GBG 119/NSABP B-63)
Gilead Clinical Study Information Center - GileadClinicalTrials@gilead.com
Effectiveness of the Eko Digital Stethoscope in Capturing Infant ECGs
Christopher Snyder - christopher.snyder@vcuhealth.org
HEAL-IST IDE Trial
Joseph Derr - jderr@atricure.com
• Age ≥ 18 years and ≤ 75 years at time of enrollment consent
• Subject has a diagnosis of IST
• Documentation of refractoriness (intolerance or failure) of a drug (e.g., rate control drugs such as beta-blockers/calcium channel blockers, ivabradine), and/or AADs
• Subject is willing and able to provide written informed consent
• Subjects on whom cardiac surgery or single lung ventilation cannot be performed
• Subjects with indication for or existing ICDs/Pacemakers
• Presence of channelopathies
• Previous cardio-thoracic surgery
• Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) \< 50%
• Body Mass Index (BMI) ≥ 35
• Presence of supraventricular or ventricular tachycardia
• Presence of Postural Orthostatic Sinus Tachycardia (POTS)
• Presence of congenital heart disease
• History suggestive of secondary cause of tachycardia such as pheochromocytoma, anemia, thyrotoxicosis, chronic fever of unknown origin, COPD, long-term bronchodilators use, severe asthma or carcinoid syndrome
• Subjects who have had a previous catheter ablation in the right atrium for IST or other disorders
• Life expectancy \< 24 months
• Pregnant or planning to become pregnant during trial
• Subjects with substance abuse
• Subjects with previous weight loss surgery
• Subject is unwilling and/or unable to return for scheduled follow-up visits
• Current participation in another clinical investigation of a medical device or a drug, or recent participation in such a trial that may interfere with trial results
• Not competent to legally represent him or herself (e.g., requires a guardian or caretaker as a legal representative) and;
• Presence of other anatomic or comorbid conditions, or other medical, social, or psychological conditions that, in the investigator's opinion, could limit the subject's ability to participate in the clinical investigation or to comply with follow-up requirements, or impact the scientific soundness of the clinical investigation results
Androgen Suppression Combined With Nodal Irradiation and Dose Escalated Prostate Treatment (ASCENDE-SBRT)
Wendy Parulekar - wparulekar@ctg.queensu.ca
PREVENT ALL ALS Study
ALL ALS Patient Navigator - info@all-als.org
• Age 18 years or older
• Capable of providing informed consent
• Willing to follow study procedures
• First-degree relative of a known carrier of any ALS causative gene1 (regardless of whether ALS or FTD has actually been symptomatic in the family) OR First-degree relative of an individual with ALS and/or FTD in a family with a "compelling family history" of ALS/FTD, regardless of whether genetic testing has occurred in symptomatic family members. A "compelling family history" is defined as a pedigree with at least 2 close relatives who had ALS or FTD, with at least one of those family members having had ALS.
• Access to a smartphone, computer, or tablet, and internet (need not be in the home - access to a public library or other available computer with internet connection is sufficient)
• Evidence of neurological signs or symptoms concerning for ALS of FTD, at the discretion of the site investigator which will be communicated to the applicant along with referral for appropriate clinical follow-up.
• Significant cognitive impairment, clinical dementia, or unstable psychiatric illness, including psychosis, active suicidal ideation, suicide attempt, or untreated major depression \<= 90 days (about 3 months) of screening, which in the opinion of the Investigator would interfere with the study procedures
• Clinically significant, unstable medical condition (e.g., cardiovascular instability, systemic infection, untreated thyroid dysfunction, malignant and potentially progressive cancer) that would render the participant unlikely to be able to complete 12 months of follow-up, according to Investigator's judgment Exclusion Criteria for Participants Undergoing Optional Lumbar Puncture
• Medically unable to undergo lumbar puncture (LP) as determined by the site investigator (i.e., bleeding disorder, a skin infection at or near the LP site, known or suspected intracranial or intraspinal tumor or other cause of increased intracranial pressure).
• Allergy to Lidocaine or other local anesthetic agents.
• Use of anticoagulant medication or antiplatelet medications (aside from aspirin 81 mg) that cannot be safely withheld prior to lumbar puncture.
• Blood dyscrasia, abnormal bleeding diathesis, or the use of dialysis for renal failure.
• Current pregnancy based on participant self-report
• Clinical judgement of the site investigator that the participant would be unable to undergo multiple lumbar punctures. Inclusion Criteria for Genetic Testing Results Sub-study
• Age 18 years of age or older
• Capable of providing informed consent
• Willing to follow study procedures
• Currently enrolled in the PREVENT ALS Study
Quizartinib or Placebo Plus Chemotherapy in Newly Diagnosed Patients With FLT3-ITD Negative AML (QuANTUM-WILD)
Daiichi Sankyo Contact for Clinical Trial Information - CTRinfo_us@daiichisankyo.com
• Must be competent and able to comprehend, sign, and date an Ethics Committee (EC)- or Institutional Review Board (IRB)-approved ICF before performance of any trial-specific procedures or tests.
• ≥18 years or the minimum legal adult age (whichever is greater) and ≤70 years (at Screening).
• Newly diagnosed, morphologically documented primary AML based on the World Health Organization (WHO) 2016 classification (at Screening)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (at the time the participant signs their ICF) of 0-2.
• Participant is a candidate for standard "7+3" induction chemotherapy regimen as specified in the protocol per investigator assessment Key
• Diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), French-American-British classification M3 or WHO classification of APL with translocation, t(15;17)(q22;q12), or BCR-ABL positive leukemia (ie, chronic myelogenous leukemia in blast crisis); participants who undergo diagnostic workup for APL and treatment with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA), but who are found not to have APL, are eligible (treatment with ATRA must be discontinued before starting induction chemotherapy).
• Diagnosis of AML secondary to prior chemotherapy or radiotherapy.
• Diagnosis of AML with known antecedent myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or a myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) or MDS/MPNs including chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML), atypical chronic myeloid leukemia (aCML), juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML) and others.
• Participants with newly diagnosed AML with FLT3-ITD mutations (FLT3-ITD \[+\]) present at ≥5% VAF (or ≥0.05 SR) based on a validated FLT3 mutation assay.
• Prior treatment for AML, except for the following allowances prior to Day 1 of chemotherapy:
• Leukapheresis;
• Treatment for hyperleukocytosis with hydroxyurea;
• Cranial radiotherapy for central nervous system (CNS) leukostasis;
• Prophylactic intrathecal chemotherapy
Automated Robotic TCD in Traumatic Brain Injury (ART-TBI)
Shraddha Mainali, MD - shraddha.mainali@vcuhealth.org
The Rhythm Evaluation for AntiCoagulaTion With Continuous Monitoring of Atrial Fibrillation (REACT-AF)
Shea Smith - reactaf_stanfordcc@stanford.edu
• 22-85 years of age.
• English speaking participants. Spanish-only speakers may be included in the future at select sites appropriately translated.
• History of non-permanent atrial fibrillation.
• CHA2DS2-VASC score of 1-4 for men and 2-4 for women without prior stroke or Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a point-based system used to stratify the risk of stroke in Atrial Fibrillation (AF) patients. The acronym CHA2DS2-VASc stands for congestive heart failure, hypertension, age ≥75 (doubled), diabetes, stroke (doubled), vascular disease, age 65 to 74 and sex category (female). Congestive heart failure defined as: The presence of signs and symptoms of either right (elevated central venous pressure, hepatomegaly, dependent edema) or left ventricular failure (exertional dyspnea, cough, fatigue, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, cardiac enlargement, rales, gallop rhythm, pulmonary venous congestion) or both, confirmed by non-invasive or invasive measurements demonstrating objective evidence of cardiac dysfunction and/or ejection fraction \< 40%.
• The participant is on a DOAC at the time of screening and willing to stay on DOAC for duration of study.
• Willing and able to comply with the protocol, including: * Possession of a smart watch-compatible smart phone (iPhone that supports the latest shipping iOS) with a cellular service plan * Be willing to wear the smart watch for the suggested minimum of 14 hours a day * Expected to be within cellular service range at least 80% of the time
• Willing and able to discontinue DOAC
• The participant is willing and able to provide informed consent.
• Valvular or permanent atrial fibrillation.
• Current treatment with warfarin and unwilling or unable to take a DOAC.
• The participant is a woman who is pregnant or nursing.
• The participant is being treated with chronic aspirin, another anti-platelet agent, or chronic NSAIDS outside of current medical guidelines (e.g., primary stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation, primary prevention of cardiovascular events, pain relief, fever, gout) and is unwilling or unable to discontinue use for the study duration.
• Existing cardiac rhythm device or indication for a permanent pacemaker, Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator (ICD) or Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy (CRT) device or planned insertable cardiac monitor. Insertable cardiac monitors are permitted unless they are being used to guide anticoagulation treatment.
• Known or suspected symptomatic or asymptomatic atrial fibrillation lasting ≥ 1 hour/month over the last 3 months.
• Any documented single AF episode lasting ≥ 1 hour on standard of care or study-provided external cardiac monitor of \> 6 days duration performed within 45 days prior to randomization. Shorter monitoring durations may be acceptable for inclusion at the discretion of the site PI based on the totality of monitoring data and approval of the study PI.
• Ablation for AF within the last 2 months.
• Prior or anticipated left atrial appendage occlusion or ligation.
• Mechanical prosthetic valve(s) or severe valve disease.
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
• Participant needs DOAC for reasons other than preventing stroke or arterial embolism resulting from AF (i.e., preventing Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) or PE) or needs permanent OAC (i.e., congenital heart defects, prosthetic heart valve).
• Participants deemed high risk for non-cardioembolic stroke (i.e., significant carotid artery disease defined as stenosis \> 75%) based on the investigator's discretion.
• The participant is enrolled, has participated within the last 30 days, or is planning to participate in a concurrent drug and/or device study during the course of this clinical trial. Co-enrollment in concurrent trials is only allowed with documented pre-approval from the study manager; there is no concern that co-enrollment could confound the results of this trial.
• The participant has a tattoo, birthmark, or surgical scar over the dorsal wrist area on the ipsilateral side that the AFSW may be worn.
• The participant has a tremor on their ipsilateral side that the AFSW may be worn.
• Any concomitant condition that, in the investigator's opinion, would not allow safe participation in the study (e.g., drug addiction, alcohol abuse).
• Known hypersensitivity or contraindication to direct oral anticoagulants.
• Documented prior stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) or transient ischemic attack.
• Reversible causes of AF (e.g., cardiac surgery, pulmonary embolism, untreated hyperthyroidism). AF ablation does not constitute reversible AF.
• \> 5% burden of premature atrial or ventricular depolarizations on pre-enrollment cardiac monitoring.
• History of atrial flutter that has not been treated with ablation (participants in atrial flutter and have been ablated are eligible for enrollment).
• Stage 4 or 5 chronic kidney disease.
• Conditions associated with an increased risk of bleeding: * Major surgery in the previous month * Planned surgery or intervention in the next three months that would require cessation of anticoagulation \> 2 weeks. * History of intracranial, intraocular, spinal, retroperitoneal, or atraumatic intra- articular bleeding * Gastrointestinal hemorrhage within the past year unless the cause has been permanently eliminated (e.g., by surgery) * Symptomatic or endoscopically documented gastroduodenal ulcer disease in the previous 30 days * Hemorrhagic disorder or bleeding diathesis * Need for anticoagulant treatment for disorders other than AF * Uncontrolled hypertension (Systolic Blood Pressure \>180 mmHg and/or Diastolic Blood Pressure \>100 mmHg)
Ribociclib And Endocrine Treatment of Physician's Choice for Locoregional Recurrent, Resected Hormone Receptor Positive HER2 Negative Breast Cancer (RaPhLRR)
Oana Danciu, MD - ocdanciu@uic.edu
A Research Study to Advance the CF Therapeutics Pipeline for People Without Modulators
Olena Boyarska - olena.boyarska@seattlechildrens.org
Effect of Moderate Renal Impairment and Race/Ethnicity on Treosulfan Pharmacokinetics
Clinical Trial Information - ClinicalTrialInformation@medac.de
• Participants with AML or MDS who qualify for treosulfan-based conditioning treatment, indicated for alloHSCT.
• Have available matched-related, matched-unrelated, haploidentical, or a mismatched unrelated donor. Match is defined as at least 9/10 allele matches in human leucocyte antigen (HLA)-A, -B, -C, -DRB1 and DQB1 or 7/8 allele matches in (HLA)-A, -B, -C and -DRB1. Haploidentical is defined as any family member with 2, 3 or 4 (out of 8) HLA-loci mismatch; at the same time, the donor and recipient must be HLA identical for at least one antigen at the following genetic loci: (HLA)-A, -B, -C, and -DRB1. High resolution deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) typing must be used.
• Are adults of either sex, age 18-80 years (inclusive).
• Have a Karnofsky Index of greater than or equal to (\>=) 60 percent (%).
• Have a creatinine clearance (CLcre) \>=30 milliliters per minute (mL/min) (Cockcroft Gault: normal renal function: CLcre \>=90 mL/min, mild renal impairment: CLcre 60-89 mL/min, moderate renal impairment: CLcre 30-59 mL/min).
• Are willing to consent to using a highly effective method of birth control, such as condoms, implants, injectables, combined oral contraceptives, intrauterine devices, sexual abstinence or vasectomised partner while on treatment and for at least 6 months thereafter, if females of childbearing potential (defined according to the Clinical Trials Facilitation and Coordination Group guidelines as a fertile woman, following menarche and until becoming postmenopausal unless permanently sterile) and males capable of reproduction.
• Have a negative pregnancy test, if females of childbearing potential.
• Have provided a written informed consent.
• Participants considered not eligible for alloHSCT, for instance due to severe concomitant illness, within 3 weeks before the scheduled Baseline Visit: * Have severe renal impairment, example, are on dialysis, have renal transplantation history, or calculated CLcre of less than (\<) 30 mL/min. * Have severe pulmonary impairment, single-breath diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO) (haemoglobin adjusted) or forced expiratory volume (FEV1) of \<50%, or severe dyspnoea at rest or requiring oxygen supplementation. * Have moderate or severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh B or C classification, respectively) and with documented medical history of chronic liver disease..
• Have a known coronary artery disease, history of myocardial infarction, cardiac dysfunction, including cardiomyopathies, heart failure (New York Heart Association Class II and above), and cardiac arrhythmias (including paroxysmal and permanent atrial fibrillation), interventricular conduction delay and / or bundle branch block (QRS duration \>120 milliseconds \[ms\]).
• Have Fredericia-corrected QTc (QTcF) interval \>450 ms in men and \>470 ms in women.
• Have active malignant involvement of the central nervous system.
• Are human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive or have an active non controlled infectious disease under treatment including fungal infection, active viral liver infection, or known severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS CoV 2) viral infection at the time of enrolment.
• Have previously had more than one alloHSCT.
• Have pleural effusion or ascites of \>1.0 liters (L).
• Are pregnant or breast-feeding.
• Have uncontrolled or severe intercurrent medical condition.
• Have known hypersensitivity to treosulfan, fludarabine, and / or related ingredients, Fanconi anaemia and other disorders resulting from DNA repair disorders.
• Are participating in another experimental drug trial (except those for coronavirus disease \[COVID 19\] vaccines) within 4 weeks prior to the Day 7 Baseline Visit. This exception serves to comply with subject's interests as this population is at a high risk of COVID 19 complications, if the disease occurs. COVID 19 vaccination details (including vaccine name, batch and manufacturer, dose, date of administration, and whether the right or left arm was injected) should be captured as a concomitant medication to enable better assessment of the overall effect of COVID 19 vaccination on oncology trial results.
• Exhibit non cooperative behaviour or non compliance.
• Have psychiatric diseases or conditions that might compromise the ability to give informed consent.
Testing the Use of Chemotherapy After Surgery for High-Risk Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Tumors
ctrrecruit@vcu.edu
Evaluate the Safety, Tolerability, Pharmacodynamics and Efficacy of CNP-106 in Subjects With Myasthenia Gravis
Joseph Mide - jmide@courpharma.com
• Subjects who are willing and able to provide Institutional Review Board (IRB) approved written informed consent and privacy language as per national regulations.
• Men and non-pregnant women, ages 18-75 years inclusive.
• Female subjects of childbearing potential must agree not to become pregnant during the clinical study, have a negative pregnancy test at the Screening Visit, and agree to one of the following: * Use two highly effective forms of birth control starting at initial screening and continuing throughout the study duration. * Practice abstinence starting at initial screening and continuing throughout the study duration.
• Subjects with a Myasthenia Gravis Foundation of America Clinical Classification Class III-IV (Cohort 1). Upon successful DMC review and approval of preliminary safety data obtained from Cohort 1 through Day 15, Cohort 2 will enroll subjects with MGFA Clinical Classification Class II-IV.
• Subjects positive for anti-AChR antibodies by radioimmunoassay (RIA) (Mayo Clinic). 6, Subjects with MG-ADL Score ≥ 6 at Screening and Baseline Visit with ≥ 50% of the score derived from non-ocular symptoms.
• Subjects with QMG Score ≥ 11 at Screening and Baseline Visit. 8. For subjects on any medication used to treat the symptoms of MG (ex. Corticosteroids, pyridostigmine), subjects must be on a stable dose for a minimum of 90 days prior to enrollment and must agree not to increase their dose through clinical study duration unless reviewed and approved by the medical monitor and the site investigator.
• Female subjects who agree to not breastfeed starting at initial screening and throughout the study duration.
• Female subjects who agree to not donate ova starting at initial screening and throughout the study duration.
• Male subjects with a spouse or partner of childbearing potential, who themselves and their spouse or partner agree to practice an effective form of birth control as discussed with the study doctor or study staff starting at Screening and throughout the study duration.
• Subjects with a Myasthenia Gravis Foundation of America Clinical Classification Class I or V.
• Subjects with a history of cerebrovascular accident in the past 12 months.
• Subjects with MG-ADL Score \< 6 at Screen or Subjects with MG-ADL Score ≥ 6 at Screen with ˂ 50% of the score derived from non-ocular symptoms.
• Subjects with QMG Score \< 11 at Screen.
• Subjects who have used the following medications: * Tacrolimus within 6 months prior to the first dosing; * Methotrexate within 5 half-lives or 90 days after last dose (whichever is longer); * Anti-FcRn inhibitors (ex. Efgartigimod) within 5 half-lives or 90 days after last dose (whichever is longer); * C5 complement inhibitor (ex. Eculizumab) within 5 half-lives or 90 days after last dose (whichever is longer); * Anti-CD20 (ex. Rituximab) within 5 half-lives for 90 days after last dose (whichever is longer); * Inclusion of subjects on other immunomodulatory drugs will be at the discretion of the medical monitor and study site investigator.
• Subjects who have used immunoglobulins given SC or IV (SCIg or IVIg) or plasmapheresis/plasma exchange (PE) within 4 weeks before Screening.
• Subjects who have had thymectomy or any other thymic surgery performed within 12 months prior to Screening.
• Subjects with untreated thymic malignancy, carcinoma, or thymoma.
• Subjects with a history of tuberculosis or positive PPD skin test.
• Subjects who have received administration of any live vaccine (other than intranasal Influenza) within 28 days or subunit vaccine within 14 days prior to Screening or are planning to receive any vaccination throughout the study duration.
• Subjects who have received any COVID-19 vaccine within 14 days prior to Screening. Subjects who have received the first dose of any COVID-19 vaccine may not screen for the study until 14 days following their last dose of the vaccine if applicable.
• Subjects with laboratory test results at Screening or prior to study dosing that are outside the normal limits and considered by the investigator to be clinically significant. Note: Clinically significant laboratory test results at screening that are related to the condition (MG) are acceptable as long as all inclusion and no other exclusion criteria are met.
• Subjects with positive test results for hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg), hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody, or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antigen/antibody as determined at Screening.
• Subjects with a history of or currently active immune disorders other than MG (including autoimmune disease) unless the condition, after discussion with the medical monitor and study site investigator, has been deemed to be acceptable for the subject's participation in this clinical study.
• Subjects with a history of or current active diseases other than myasthenia gravis requiring immunosuppressive drugs (including azathioprine, prednisone, prednisolone, budesonide, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, methotrexate, or mycophenolate mofetil) unless the condition, after discussion with the medical monitor and site investigator, has been deemed to be acceptable for the subject's participation in this clinical study.
• Subjects with a clinical history of significant cardiovascular disease as determined by the Investigator.
• Subjects with a complication or medical history of malignancy within the past 5 years which, in the investigator's opinion, makes the subject unsuitable for study participation.
• Subjects with a history of mast cell activation disease.
• Subjects who, in the investigator's opinion, will be unable to adhere to study procedures.
• Subjects who have received an investigational therapy other than CNP-106 within 28 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is longer, prior to Screening.
• Subjects with any known active condition which, in the investigator's opinion, makes the subject unsuitable for study participation.
• Known sensitivity to any components of CNP-106 (PLGA, sucrose, mannitol or sodium citrate).
Addition of Antibiotics to Upfront Treatment Regimen for Colorectal Cancer
Massey IIT Research Operations - masseyepd@vcu.edu
A Single-session Intervention Adaptation of the Habit Framework for the Prevention of Eating Disorders
Courtney Breiner - breinerc@vcu.edu
A Study of the TactiFlex SE Catheter and Volt PFA Generator in Subjects With PAF: (FlexPulse IDE)
Todd Stirman - todd.stirman@abbott.com
• Documented symptomatic paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (PAF). Documentation requirements are as follows:
• Physician's note indicating recurrent self-terminating AF with ≥ 2 episodes of PAF within the 6 months prior to enrollment AND
• One electrocardiographically documented PAF episode within 12 months prior to enrollment. NOTE: Documented evidence of the AF episode must either be continuous AF on a 12-lead ECG or include at least 30 seconds of continuous AF from another ECG device.
• Plans to undergo a catheter ablation procedure due to symptomatic PAF and is refractory, intolerant, or contraindicated to at least one Class I-IV AAD medication
• At least 18 years of age
• Able and willing to comply with all trial requirements including pre- procedure, post-procedure, and follow-up testing and requirements
• Informed of the nature of the trial, agreed to its provisions, and has provided written informed consent as approved by the Institutional Review Board/Ethics Committee (IRB/EC) of the respective clinical trial site.
• Previously diagnosed persistent or long-standing persistent atrial fibrillation (Continuous AF greater than 1 year in duration)
• Arrhythmia due to reversible causes including thyroid disorders, acute alcohol intoxication, electrolyte imbalance, severe untreated sleep apnea, and other major surgical procedures in the preceding 90 days
• Known presence of cardiac thrombus
• Left atrial diameter (LAD) \> or equal to 5.0 cm (anteroposterior diameter) within 180 days prior to the index procedure
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) \< or equal to 35% as assessed with echocardiography or computerized tomography (CT) within 180 days prior to the index procedure
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV heart failure
• Body mass index \> or equal to 40 kg/m2
• Pregnant or nursing
• Patients who have had a ventriculotomy or atriotomy within the preceding 28 days of procedure
• Myocardial infarction (MI), acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), or valve or coronary bypass grafting surgery within preceding 90 days
• Stroke or TIA (transient ischemic attack) within the last 90 days
• Heart disease in which corrective surgery is anticipated within 180 days after procedure
• History of blood clotting or bleeding abnormalities including thrombocytosis, thrombocytopenia, bleeding diathesis, or suspected anti- coagulant state
• Contraindication to long-term anti-thromboembolic therapy
• Patient unable to receive heparin or an acceptable alternative to achieve adequate anticoagulation
• Known sensitivity to contrast media (if needed during the procedure) that cannot be controlled with pre-medication
• Previous left atrial surgical or left atrial catheter ablation procedure (including left atrial appendage (LAA) closure device)
• Plans to have an LAA closure device implanted during the follow-up period
• Presence of any condition that precludes appropriate vascular access
• Severe mitral regurgitation (regurgitant volume ≥ 60 mL/beat, regurgitant fraction ≥ 50%, and/or effective regurgitant orifice area ≥ 0.40cm2)
• Previous tricuspid or mitral valve replacement or repair
• Patients with prosthetic valves
• Patients with a myxoma
• Patients with an interatrial baffle or patch as the transseptal puncture could persist and produce an iatrogenic atrial shunt
• Stent, constriction, or stenosis in a pulmonary vein
• Rheumatic heart disease
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• Active systemic infection
• Renal failure requiring dialysis
• Severe pulmonary disease (e.g., restrictive pulmonary disease, constrictive or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) or any other disease or malfunction of the lungs or respiratory system that produces severe chronic symptoms
• Presence of an implantable therapeutic cardiac device including permanent pacemaker, biventricular pacemaker, or any type of implantable cardiac defibrillator (with or without biventricular pacing function) or planned implant of such a device for any time during the follow-up period. Presence of an implantable loop recorder is acceptable as long as it is removed prior to insertion of the investigational device.
• Patient is currently participating in another clinical trial or has participated in a clinical trial within 30 days prior to screening that may interfere with this clinical trial without pre-approval from this study Sponsor
• Unlikely to survive the protocol follow up period of 12 months
• Presence of other medical, anatomic, comorbid, social, or psychological conditions that, in the investigator's opinion, could limit the subject's ability to participate in the clinical investigation or to comply with follow-up requirements, or impact the scientific soundness of the clinical investigation results.
• Individuals without legal authority
• Individuals unable to read or write
Oral Health In Cirrhosis of the Liver (ORACLE) (ORACLE)
Jasmohan Bajaj, MD - jasmohan.bajaj@vcuhealth.org
Safety and Tolerability Study of GIM-531 in Advanced Solid Tumors
Jayadev Sureddi, CBCC CRO - jayadev.sureddi@cbcc.global
Left vs Left Randomized Clinical Trial
Mihail G Chelu, MD, PhD - leftvsleft@bcm.edu
CRISPR-Edited Allogeneic Anti-CD19 CAR-T Cell Therapy for Relapsed/Refractory B Cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (ANTLER)
Socorro Portella, MD - clinicaltrials@cariboubio.com
Patient-reported Outcomes of Donor Site Healing Using Different Palatal Protection Techniques
Rafael Amorim Cavalcanti de Siqueira - amorimcavalr@vcu.edu
A Study of Repotrectinib in Pediatric and Young Adult Subjects Harboring ALK, ROS1, OR NTRK1-3 Alterations
BMS Study Connect Contact Center www.BMSStudyConnect.com - Clinical.Trials@bms.com
• Documented genetic ROS1 point mutation, fusion, or amplification or NTRK1-3 fusion as identified by local testing in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) laboratory in the US or equivalently accredited diagnostic lab outside the United States (US) is required.
• Phase 1: Age \<12 years; Phase 2: Age 12- 25 years
• Prior cytotoxic chemotherapy is allowed.
• Prior immunotherapy is allowed.
• Resolution of all acute toxic effects (excluding alopecia) of any prior anti-cancer therapy to National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI CTCAE) Version 4.03 Grade less than or equal to 1.
• All subjects must have measurable disease by RECIST v1.1 or Response Assessment in Neuro-Oncology (RANO) criteria at time of enrollment.
• Subjects with a primary CNS tumor or CNS metastases must be neurologically stable on a stable or decreasing dose of steroids for at least 7 days prior to enrollment.
• Subjects must have a Lansky (\< 16 years) or Karnofsky (≥ 16 years) score of at least 50.
• Life expectancy greater than or equal to 12 weeks, in the investigator's opinion.
• Adequate hematologic, renal and hepatic function. Phase 2
• Cohort Specific
• Subjects in Cohorts 1 and 2 must have prospectively confirmed measurable disease by BICR prior to enrollment. Key Exclusion Criteria (Phase 1 and Phase 2):
• Subjects with neuroblastoma with only bone marrow disease evaluable by bone marrow aspiration only.
• Major surgery within 14 days (2 weeks) of start of repotrectinib treatment. Central venous access (Broviac, Mediport, etc.) placement does not meet criteria for major surgery.
• Known active infections requiring ongoing treatment (bacterial, fungal, viral including HIV positivity).
• Gastrointestinal disease (e.g., Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or short gut syndrome) or other malabsorption syndromes that would impact drug absorption.
• Any of the following cardiac criteria: * Mean resting corrected QT interval (ECG interval measured from the onset of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave) for heart rate (QTc) \> 480 msec obtained from three ECGs, using the screening clinic ECG machine-derived QTc value * Any clinically important abnormalities in rhythm, conduction, or morphology of resting ECG (e.g., complete left bundle branch block, third degree heart block, second degree heart block, PR interval \> 250 msec) * Any factors that increase the risk of QTc prolongation or risk of arrhythmic events such as heart failure, congenital long QT syndrome, family history of long QT syndrome, or any concomitant medication known to prolong the QT interval
• Peripheral neuropathy of CTCAE ≥grade 2.
• Subjects being treated with or anticipating the need for treatment with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors or inducers.
• Any potential allergies to repotrectinib and/or its excipients.